Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com

In addition to the "counting fallacy" we also have to be on guard against the "genre fallacy". Far too often biblical scholars fail to acknowledge the extent to which every Gospel is primarily just following the lead of the first. They act as if "Gospel" was a "gen...

Firstly I'm not saying any certain explanation for the phenomenon is right or wrong at this point. I'm just wondering why this might be the case. Acts is interesting because it uses both terms in relatively equal proportions. And in Acts ekklēsia does not always refer to the "church". For ...

Tomorrow I will encourage a few female scholars to put forward the thesis that Mary Magdalene wrote the first gospel. We will prove this and reconstruct her oppressed gospel. I expect a similar “success” of this thesis, if not an even bigger one. Isn't it obvious, though? Mark 14:9 is Mary's self-i...

Tomorrow I will encourage a few female scholars to put forward the thesis that Mary Magdalene wrote the first gospel. We will prove this and reconstruct her oppressed gospel. I expect a similar “success” of this thesis, if not an even bigger one. Isn't it obvious, though? Mark 14:9 is Mary's self-i...

It seems to me that Ekklēsia as it is used by Jews prior to the 2nd century refers mainly to a group of people, not necessarily a building. I wasn't at all thinking of uses of the word Ekklēsia / "church" (or "assembly") as if referring to a building. I'm possibly being misread ...

@Peter But here is no "church" anywhere, this is anachronistic. Ekklēsia = assembly, and this term was used by Jews to refer to Jewish religious bodies. It seems to me that Ekklēsia as it is used by Jews prior to the 2nd century refers mainly to a group of people, not necessarily a buildin...

Sorry, it was late at night. I didn't read all the way through or notice the necromancy... However, I agree that the case for Marcion's priority is not good. However, of course, I'm now out on a limb myself and don't consider any known Gospel to be the first narrative and am forced to work at trying...

My search on biblehub shows no instances of ekklēsia in Mark. Is this correct?

https://biblehub.com/greek/ekkle_sia_1577.htm

It looks like Mark uses συναγωγὴν.

I find this interesting because Paul never uses συναγωγὴν and Mark apparently never uses ἐκκλησίᾳ.

I'm not sure what to think about that.

But to keep on topic. Mark also conforms to Matthew in it's single, solitary reference to hell where it's obviously copied in from Matthew. 9:48 What is the case to be made here? The relationship of Mark 9:42-49 to Matthew is complicated. I would that that Mark 9:42-49 doesn't have any particular s...

Anyhoo, what's the point of the OP?