What makes you think God wants less for his children than yo

[Gnostic Bishop]

What makes you think God wants less for his children than you for yours?

Most Christians think that God created man to be subservient to him. We are to love honor and most of all obey and serve his wants and needs forever as his heavenly children. In other words, God is always at the top and man is always below.

As above so below. At end times, God’s law is to prevail on earth.

As a son, I strained to do as well and even better than my father. It happened naturally and thus I think most people do the same.

As a parent myself, I want my children to do as well as I have and then bust any record of mine and do better. That to me would be the ideal. That eventually places my children above me, --- where they belong. This is natural and desirable yet God would have the reverse with his children.

Are you ready to follow your God and have your children subservient to you forever?
Do you think that to be the natural order of things?

I would not force my children beneath me and reject a God who would have me beneath him forever.

I remember what Jesus asked in the bible. Have ye forgotten that ye are Gods?

My answer is no. What is yours?

Regards
DL

[ghost]

I don't believe that gods exist. I think in theological terms that makes me an atheist.

So questions about what God does or doesn't do are irrelevant, because first it must be established that he exists.

[semiopen]

I remember what Jesus asked in the bible. Have ye forgotten that ye are Gods?

My answer is no. What is yours?

Regards
DL

Forsooth knave -

My guess is that you are referring to the John 10:34-36 comment on Psalms 82:6.

Solely on your use of the term "ye" I looked this up.

Psalm 82 - http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt2682.htm

On first reading of the entire thing, it looks like the guy is talking to guys who are judging poor (and presumably innocent) people. It is totally unclear if the author says poor, innocent people are like gods.

Attributing John's comments to Yoshke must be a convention

John 10:34 Yoshke answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are "gods"'?

It might be worth mentioning that John's use of the term "Jews" seems anti-semitic

Antisemitism_and_the_New_Testament

John's use of the term 'Jews' is a complex and debated area of biblical scholarship. Some scholars argue that the author most likely considered himself Jewish and was probably speaking to a largely Jewish community.[13] New Testament scholar J.G. Dunn writes:

"The Fourth Evangelist is still operating within a context of intra-Jewish factional dispute, although the boundaries and definitions themselves are part of that dispute. It is clear beyond doubt that once the Fourth Gospel is removed from that context, and the constraints of that context, it was all too easily read as an anti-Jewish polemic and became a tool of anti-semitism. But it is highly questionable whether the Fourth Evangelist himself can fairly be indicted for either anti-Judaism or anti-semitism."[14]

Because of this controversy some modern English translations, such as Today's New International Version, remove the term "Jews" and replace it with more specific terms to avoid anti-Semitic connotations.

Maybe GB's technique of simply not citing any references is the true enlightened approach. However, you have to wonder if Yoshke in the middle of such an intense encounter would use such an obscure and debatable reference.

"I Said: You Are Gods": Psalm 82:6 and John 10
Jerome H. Neyrey
Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 108, No. 4 (Winter, 1989), pp. 647-663

In the 1960s, a debate emerged over the interpretation of Ps 82:6-7 in relation to John 10:34-36, the general lines of which were summarized by Anthony Hanson. He called attention to four different ways in which Psalm 82 was understood in Jewish traditions, with reference to (a) angels, (b) Melchizedek, (c) judges, and (d) Israel at Sinai. All four interpretations are
attested to in midrashic literature, but which one relates to John 10:34-36? Angels. In an early study on Psalm 82, J. A. Emerton3 argued that in the targum to the Psalms,4 Qumran5 the Peshitta, and the Fathers, 'Wloh•m in Psalm 82 was understood to refer to "angels." Emerton suggests that 'lo6h•m refers to superhuman beings to whom the nations were allotted (e.g., Deut
4:19; Daniel 10), whom the Jews regarded as angels but whom the Gentiles called gods (see 1 Cor 10:20).

Neyrey argues that John 10 is kosher from an Israel at Sinai perspective but there's a lot of math.

[nili]

What makes you think God wants less for his children than you for yours?

What makes you think God wants?

[semiopen]

Just to finish my previous thoughts.

Current thinking about Psalm 82 seems to be that Yoshke's opinion isn't worth much discussion.

Mark Smith in The Origins of Biblical Monotheism: Israel's Polytheistic Background and the Ugaritic Texts says

The author of Psalm 82 deposes the older theology, as Israel's deity is called to assume a new role as judge of all the world. Yet at the same time, Psalm 82, like Deuteronomy 32:8–9, preserves the outlines of the older theology it is rejecting. From the perspective of this older theology, Yahweh did not belong to the top tier of the pantheon. Instead, in early Israel the god of Israel apparently belonged to the second tier of the pantheon; he was not the presider god, but one of his sons.

When the Most High gave nations their homes And set the divisions of man, He fixed the boundaries of peoples In relation to Israel's numbers. (Deu 32:8 TNK)
For the LORD's portion is His people, Jacob His own allotment. (Deu 32:9 TNK)

This opinion is no doubt based on the use of the word עֶלְיוֹן֙ in Deu 32:8.

Psa 82:1 starts out -

A psalm of Asaph. God stands in the divine assembly; among the divine beings He pronounces judgment.
(Psa 82:1 TNK)

Where God is elohim - אֱֽלֹהִ֗ים

Standing in the midst of the other God's YHWH says -

I had taken you for divine beings, sons of the Most High, all of you; (Psa 82:6 TNK)

Erhard S. Gerstenberger agrees in his work on Psalms

Psalm 82, for its part, not only uses the first person of God but also portrays his action in the divine council. The concept of God's acting among a pantheon of deities was apparently common throughout Israel's history, in spite of later monotheistic restrictions of any polytheistic models

Note sons of the Most High וּבְנֵ֖י עֶלְי֣וֹן

It's kosher to expound on the bible by stripping a verse away from it's context, still Yoshke/John seems to be making a pretty feeble comment.

[Gnostic Bishop]

I don't believe that gods exist. I think in theological terms that makes me an atheist.

So questions about what God does or doesn't do are irrelevant, because first it must be established that he exists.

It is said that intelligent people can discuss what they do not believe in.

Some cannot I guess.

Regards
DL

[Gnostic Bishop]

I remember what Jesus asked in the bible. Have ye forgotten that ye are Gods?

My answer is no. What is yours?

Regards
DL

Forsooth knave -

My guess is that you are referring to the John 10:34-36 comment on Psalms 82:6.

Solely on your use of the term "ye" I looked this up.

Psalm 82 - http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt2682.htm

On first reading of the entire thing, it looks like the guy is talking to guys who are judging poor (and presumably innocent) people. It is totally unclear if the author says poor, innocent people are like gods.

Attributing John's comments to Yoshke must be a convention

John 10:34 Yoshke answered them, "Is it not written in your Law, 'I have said you are "gods"'?

It might be worth mentioning that John's use of the term "Jews" seems anti-semitic

Antisemitism_and_the_New_Testament

John's use of the term 'Jews' is a complex and debated area of biblical scholarship. Some scholars argue that the author most likely considered himself Jewish and was probably speaking to a largely Jewish community.[13] New Testament scholar J.G. Dunn writes:

"The Fourth Evangelist is still operating within a context of intra-Jewish factional dispute, although the boundaries and definitions themselves are part of that dispute. It is clear beyond doubt that once the Fourth Gospel is removed from that context, and the constraints of that context, it was all too easily read as an anti-Jewish polemic and became a tool of anti-semitism. But it is highly questionable whether the Fourth Evangelist himself can fairly be indicted for either anti-Judaism or anti-semitism."[14]

Because of this controversy some modern English translations, such as Today's New International Version, remove the term "Jews" and replace it with more specific terms to avoid anti-Semitic connotations.

Maybe GB's technique of simply not citing any references is the true enlightened approach. However, you have to wonder if Yoshke in the middle of such an intense encounter would use such an obscure and debatable reference.

"I Said: You Are Gods": Psalm 82:6 and John 10
Jerome H. Neyrey
Journal of Biblical Literature, Vol. 108, No. 4 (Winter, 1989), pp. 647-663

In the 1960s, a debate emerged over the interpretation of Ps 82:6-7 in relation to John 10:34-36, the general lines of which were summarized by Anthony Hanson. He called attention to four different ways in which Psalm 82 was understood in Jewish traditions, with reference to (a) angels, (b) Melchizedek, (c) judges, and (d) Israel at Sinai. All four interpretations are
attested to in midrashic literature, but which one relates to John 10:34-36? Angels. In an early study on Psalm 82, J. A. Emerton3 argued that in the targum to the Psalms,4 Qumran5 the Peshitta, and the Fathers, 'Wloh•m in Psalm 82 was understood to refer to "angels." Emerton suggests that 'lo6h•m refers to superhuman beings to whom the nations were allotted (e.g., Deut
4:19; Daniel 10), whom the Jews regarded as angels but whom the Gentiles called gods (see 1 Cor 10:20).

Neyrey argues that John 10 is kosher from an Israel at Sinai perspective but there's a lot of math.

Interesting.

Care to speak to the issues in the O. P.?

Regards
DL