Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote: ↑
Thu Jan 16, 2020 11:49 am
Not decisive arguments but two additional observations.
First, the grammatical word usage of „moved with compassion“ in GMark
Apart from vers 1:41 Mark used „σπλαγχνίζομαι“ (to be moved with compassion) three times
||feeding the five thousand
||32 And they went away in the boat to a desolate place by themselves. 33 Now many saw them going and recognized them, and they ran there on foot from all the towns and got there ahead of them. 34 When he went ashore he saw a great crowd, and he had compassion on them, because they were like sheep without a shepherd. And he began to teach them many things.|
||feeding the four thousand
||1 In those days, when again a great crowd had gathered, and they had nothing to eat, he called his disciples to him and said to them, 2 “I have compassion on the crowd, because they have been with me now three days and have nothing to eat. |
||healing of the boy with the unclean spirit
||20 And they brought the boy to him. And when the spirit saw him, immediately it convulsed the boy, and he fell on the ground and rolled about, foaming at the mouth. 21 And Jesus asked his father, “How long has this been happening to him?” And he said, “From childhood. 22 And it has often cast him into fire and into water, to destroy him. But if you can do anything, have compassion on us and help us.” |
Mark used the verb „moved with compassion“ in all three instances with the preposition „on/upon
“ and an object
|Mark 6:34 ||he had compassion on them ||ἐσπλαγχνίσθη ἐπ' αὐτοὺς|
|Mark 8:2 ||I have compassion on the crowd ||Σπλαγχνίζομαι ἐπὶ τὸν ὄχλον|
|Mark 9:22 ||have compassion on us ||σπλαγχνισθεὶς ἐφ' ἡμᾶς|
This is not the case in the majority reading of Mark 1:41.
|Mark 1:41 ||And moved with compassion, he stretched out his hand (καὶ σπλαγχνισθεὶς ἐκτείνας τὴν χεῖρα) and touched him and said to him, “I will; be clean.” |
Good one. But there are some differences with the above and 1:41:
- 1) The obvious one is the plural subjects here. The preposition seems more natural with a group since it lacks the near quality of an individual. Maybe only in English.
2) While 1:41 is technically a verb, it is clearly an emotion (anger/compassion). The first two above compassions have a stronger sense of a verb, as compassion is followed by connected verb (cause/effect). The third compassion is just a request and is not the motivation for action.
Interestingly, "Mark" always connects Jesus' compassion to the crowds (9:22 Jesus is motivated by the crowd). On the other hand, as Ehrman rightfully points out, the two instances of Jesus' anger (1:41 & 3:5) are connected to questioning Jesus willingness to heal:
- 1:41 = Questions Jesus' general willingness to heal.
3:5 = Questions specific limitations (Shabbat) on Jesus' willingness to heal.
As always, it's difficult to look at a Markan story without finding irony:
εἴei if Conj
τι anything IPro-ANS
δύνῃ You are able [to do], V-PIM/P-2S
Jesus' response 9:23
Εἰ If Conj
δύνῃ You are able? V-PIM/P-2S
Note that Jesus answers a question with a question but what follows indicates that the meaning is not Jesus just repeating the question (since the word is exactly the same) in the same context (Jesus' ability to heal) but changing the subject to the requester, if the requester is able (to believe) -
"All things are possible to him that believeth. 24 Straightway the father of the child cried out, and said, I believe; help thou mine unbelief."
As has been pointed out on this unholy Forum this is a primary theme of GMark, Jesus' limitations. Healing in GMark is primarily based on the recipient (faith) and not on Jesus (course this is also a convenient apology - "He never had real faith/was a real Christian").
Why Must You Be Such An Angry Young Man? GMark 1:41 - Was Jesus Angry?