On this blog post:
Waters also incorrectly gave in his handout the translation of Romans 1:3 as “descended from David,” even though the Greek says no such thing. It says Jesus was made (using the same exact word Paul used of the making of Adam and the making of our future resurrection bodies) from the sperm of David. Not from the sperm of a descendent of David. Or anything of the kind.
"descended" from David is what exactly what "seed" means when applied to human origin according to (from
http://historical-jesus.info/70.html) (emphasis mine):
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(the same kind of inference Paul makes in Gal. 3.13-4.29, where he infers Jesus is also the 'seed of Abraham' also spoken of in scripture).
My note:
Gal 3:16
"Now to Abraham and his seed ['sperma'] were the promises made. He said not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to your seed ['sperma']
, which is Christ."
It is clear here that Paul did not use the word "seed" to indicate "sperm", but "
descendant".
Ro 11:1
"I say then, Has God cast away his people? God forbid. For I also am an Israelite, of the seed ['sperma']
of Abraham, of the tribe of Benjamin."
2Cor 11:22
"Are they Hebrews? *I* also. Are they Israelites? *I* also. Are they seed ['sperma']
of Abraham? *I* also"
The same goes here. Certainly Paul did not pretend to have been conceived (according to the flesh!) with a sperm from Abraham. He simply indicated his belief he was a
descendant of Abraham (like many others).
Therefore Carrier's literal interpretation of "seed" = "sperm" in Romans 1:3 is rather stupid, as "corrected" in the RSV:
"the gospel concerning his Son, who was descended from David [
"become from David's seed"]
according to the flesh"
Sperms were not discovered and observed before 1677. So there is no way that 'sperma' could be translated by "sperm" (the same goes for Romans 1:3). This is a minor point, because 'sperma' can also mean "semen". Regardless, Carrier's translation cannot be right.
About translations, I checked 20 of them for 2 Samuel 7:12 (from the Hebrew 'zera') and for Romans 1:3 (from the Greek), and none of them has "sperm" (or "semen") for 'zera' or 'sperma'. Most translations have "seed", offspring(s), descendant(s), etc. My question: from where did Carrier get his "sperms", except from his own biased imagination?
Without considering 2 Samuel 7:12, there are eight occurrences of 'zera' (all of them showing as 'sperma' in the LXX) in 1 Samuel & 2 Samuel: 1 Samuel 1:11, 2:20, 8:15, 20: 42 (twice) & 24:21 2 Samuel 4:8, 22:51.
None of them can be translated, according to the context, as "sperm" or "semen". Why would that be different for 2 Samuel 7:12?
In the LXX:
- 'sperma' means "semen" only nine times (once in Genesis (38:4) and eight times in Leviticus (15:16,17,18,32, 18:20,21, 19:20 & 22:4)).
- Out of the two hundred & two verses where 'sperma' occurs, it means descendant(s) in around three quarters of them, in twenty-five different books (other meanings are either "semen" (as previously mentioned) or plant seed).
- 'sperma' means descendant(s) of David in seven verses (1 Samuel 20:42, 24:21, 2 Samuel 7:12, 22:51, 1 Kings 2:23 & 1 Chronicles 17:11).
And Carrier ventures on page 579:
"As we have seen, Paul already says (even in this very argument: Gal. 3.16) that Jesus is of the seed of Abraham and David."
So now the sperm from David is also the one from Abraham!
Ridiculous, but understandable if
"seed" means "descendance" (or "descendant").
"It would not be unimaginable that God could maintain a cosmic sperm bank."
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Cordially, Bernard