Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote:Why is the name of the father mentioned first in Mark 10:46? Because Daddy Timaeus was known within the Markan community?
Mark 10:46
... ὁ υἱὸς Τιμαίου Βαρτιμαῖος, τυφλὸς προσαίτης, ἐκάθητο παρὰ τὴν ὁδόν
... the son of Timaeus, Bartimaeus, blind beggar was sitting beside the way
Why not going for this? It would be the same logic!
I would have guessed it was spelled out because Bartimaeus actually means, in Aramaic, Bar (son of) Timaeus. I would not have thought that "Bartimaeus" was this person's everyday name, but it does seem strange to me that the author of Mark introduces an unnamed son of Timaeus, then gives a Greek transliteration of the Aramaic phrase. It would suggest, though, that the person of Timaeus (the father) was recognizable to the intended reader, although the name of Timaeus' son not so much.
I do note that in
Against Apion, Josephus says
"74 Now, ... Manetho, in the second book of his Egyptian History, writes concerning us [Hebrews] in the following manner: I will set down his very words, as if I were to bring the very man himself into a court for a witness:--
75 "There was a king of ours, whose name was Timaus. Under him it came to pass, I know not how, that God was averse to us, and there came, after a surprising manner, men of ignoble birth out of the eastern parts, and had boldness enough to make an expedition into our country, and with ease subdued it by force, yet without our hazarding a battle with them.
76 So when they had gotten those who governed us under their power, they afterward burnt down our cities, and demolished the temples of the gods, and used all the inhabitants after a most barbarous manner: nay, some they slew, and led their children and their wives into slavery. ...
So, this would imply that Bar Timaeus could be an euphemism for the "son of an Egyptian not of Hebrew extraction".
Unless he is referring to a writer by the name Timaeus that Josephus mentions in
Against Apion chapters 16,17 & 122, who seems to be a Greek writing about Greeks and Egyptians. Why that might make this Bar Timaeus notable I am not sure.
Philo speaks of Plato's dialogue
The Timaeus in
On the Eternity of the World (De aeternitate mundi) sections 13, 25 & 141.
Since this Bar Timaeus in the gospel of Mark was a blind beggar, it may be a snide reference to Plato's cosmology (and perhaps Philo's adaptation of it) being in need of healing through Christ.
Note that Justin, in his
Dialogue with Trypho, says
5:4 "Does not your [i.e., Trypho's] assertion agree with what Plato taught in his Timaeus concerning the world, namely, that it can be destroyed since it is a created thing, but that it will not be destroyed or be destined for destruction since such is the will of God? Don't you think that the same thing could be said of the soul and, in short, of all other creatures? For, whatever exists or will exist after God has a nature subject to corruption, and therefore capable of complete annihilation, for only God is unbegotten and incorruptible. For this reason He is God, and all other things after Him are created and corruptible. ... 5:6 We must conclude, therefore, that there are not many beings that are unbegotten, for, if there were some difference between them, you could not, no matter how you searched, find the cause of such difference; but, after sending your thought always to infinity, you would finally become tired and have to stop before the one Unbegotten and declare that He is the cause of all things.
While this displays a much more positive picture of Plato's
Timaeus, it may be saying the same thing.
In the Timaeus, it says
"In order then that the world might be solitary, like the perfect animal, the creator made not two worlds or an infinite number of them; but there is and ever will be one only-begotten and created heaven. ... We may now say that our discourse about the nature of the universe has an end. The world has received animals, mortal and immortal, and is fulfilled with them, and has become a visible animal containing the visible — the sensible God who is the image of the intellectual, the greatest, best, fairest, most perfect — the one only begotten heaven."
http://classics.mit.edu/Plato/timaeus.html
So, in this translation Plato in the
Timaeus states that the universe is unbegotten. Justin may have chosen to overlook this and rather says that in the
Timaeus, it is actually God himself who is unbegotten.
If the universe is unbegotten, then Genesis must be wrong that God created it. Since that is impossible to an early Christian weaned on the Greek translation of the Judean scriptures, then Justin, much like Philo, re-interpreted Plato's Timaeus so that it is God who is unbegotten, not the universe which was created by him, while the author of the gospel of Mark took a swipe at Plato (and by association Philo) by suggesting that Christ is the unbegotten one that created the universe, not that the universe is itself unbegotten (Plato) or that an Unbegotten God had created it (Philo).
DCH