neilgodfrey wrote:The former is founded upon the assumption of oral tradition (a hypothesis that can be refuted from both specialists' understanding of how oral tradition works in practice and from a comparative literature study showing the so-called evidence for oral sources is not a necessary indicator of oral sources at all); and the latter have repeatedly been demonstrated to be logically invalid.
.
Thanks you Neil.
But I don't think they all can all be hand waved away, or it would be a slam dunk case for a literary origin.
Oral traditions that are developing all over the illiterate Diaspora are really not up for debate.
Comparative literary studies compare our literary evidence (the gospels) with other literature known to be used by the evangelists, and study the literary techniques common in the day, and demonstrate the sources are almost entirely literary. Strip away what is attributed to literary sources and we have removed the bandages from the invisible man. There is nothing there.
But wouldn't that also apply with equal plausibility whether there was something there or not, correct?
There would be no precedent for a first time real historical event.
Your also going to the exact heart of what im asking, and I don't think you have enough information to posit that the valued previous text was the historical core they built the NT around.
Its pretty obvious many believed whole hearted in a crucified man, which could have been a literary creation previously, but that's another topic.