Sorry to come back at that:
About "endured: in Hebrews 12:2 RSV "Consider him who endured from sinners such hostility against himself, so that you may not grow weary or fainthearted."
From http://www.ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/verbs1.htmYou wrote:You appear to be reading the perfect tense as if the event in question can never happen again. That is a mistake. I can say (both in Greek and in English) that I have come, in the perfect tense, without implying that I shall never, ever come again. I can say, I have watched Casablanca before, even if I am currently in the middle of watching Casablanca, and am planning (moreover) to watch it again tomorrow. The perfect part of the tense just implies (usually) that the specific action I have in mind is complete, not that the same (kind of) action can never be repeated. At least one viewing of Casablanca is complete, and in my past, when I use the perfect tense to describe it. But that does not mean that I am not currently watching it again.
I cannot accept that the "endured" action could be repeated or is on-going when or before the epistle was written. I think the ancient Greek perfect tense simply does not allow that.Perfect Tense
The basic thought of the perfect tense is that the progress of an action has been completed and the results of the action are continuing on, in full effect. In other words, the progress of the action has reached its culmination and the finished results are now in existence. Unlike the English perfect, which indicates a completed past action, the Greek perfect tense indicates the continuation and present state of a completed past action.
As for in the future, it is my opinion, that if an author uses the perfect tense, he is not anticipating that past action to be repeated.
Correct me with evidence if you can (or anyone else who knows ancient Greek), but don't use the English perfect tense in order to do that: it is irrelevant.
Cordially, Bernard