Joseph of Arimathea.
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Re: Joseph of Arimathea.
To A1
Yes all of that might be true but the fact that Peter (not Kirby) does not use the title and seems to see him attached to Jerusalem raises a number of issues. I for instance can't see how you don't come away from Peter's account not feeling Joseph was a real resident of Jerusalem, a prominent rich Jew living before the Jewish War. Does Josephus mention having a family sepulcher in Jerusalem?
Yes all of that might be true but the fact that Peter (not Kirby) does not use the title and seems to see him attached to Jerusalem raises a number of issues. I for instance can't see how you don't come away from Peter's account not feeling Joseph was a real resident of Jerusalem, a prominent rich Jew living before the Jewish War. Does Josephus mention having a family sepulcher in Jerusalem?
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Re: Joseph of Arimathea.
Is Arimathea a corruption of the rest of Josephus's name?
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Re: Joseph of Arimathea.
Peter Kirby wrote:Good point. For another well-known example of this, consider " John Damascene," i.e. John of Damascus.
I think this is not a "example of this" because John has the article "ὁ" before Damascene. Not so Σίμων Κυρηναῖος (Simōn Kyrēnaios), but Simon the Canaanite (Σίμων ὁ Καναναῖος) in Mark 3:18 (there in accusative).Greek: Ἰωάννης ὁ Δαμασκηνός, Iōannēs ho Damaskēnos
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Re: Joseph of Arimathea.
Is that so? Golly, I didn't notice that.Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote:Peter Kirby wrote:Good point. For another well-known example of this, consider " John Damascene," i.e. John of Damascus.I think this is not a "example of this" because John has the article "ὁ" before Damascene. Not so Σίμων Κυρηναῖος (Simōn Kyrēnaios), but Simon the Canaanite (Σίμων ὁ Καναναῖος) in Mark 3:18 (there in accusative).Greek: Ἰωάννης ὁ Δαμασκηνός, Iōannēs ho Damaskēnos
What do you think it means?
"... almost every critical biblical position was earlier advanced by skeptics." - Raymond Brown
Re: Joseph of Arimathea.
Ah thanks for pitching in there. I didn't have Time to look it up when I wrote that. Also to SH, I see what you mean about it being suspect that gPeter doesn't say anything about his origin.Ben C. Smith wrote:Aleph One wrote:To clarify, the Greek of Mark 15.21 seems to treat Cyrenian as a surname, not Cyrene; since a Cyrenian is a person from Cyrene, the element of from is not exactly absent.
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Re: Joseph of Arimathea.
You are quite welcome.Aleph One wrote:Ah thanks for pitching in there. I didn't have Time to look it up when I wrote that.Ben C. Smith wrote:Aleph One wrote:To clarify, the Greek of Mark 15.21 seems to treat Cyrenian as a surname, not Cyrene; since a Cyrenian is a person from Cyrene, the element of from is not exactly absent.
ΤΙ ΕΣΤΙΝ ΑΛΗΘΕΙΑ
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Re: Joseph of Arimathea.
The problem with Joseph of Arimathea is, that the orignal text is a bit uncertain. There are manuscripts which haveAleph One wrote:Also, I had a question about how Joseph of Arimathea's title relates to Mark's "Simon of Cyrene?" I thought I remember it being discussed on this forum before that the greek literally suggests Cyrene being presented as a last name, instead of "from." Does the case of Simon shed any light on how Mark names his characters? Just ignore this if it isn't of any value; I don't know any greek, and I have to run right now, so no time to dig farther.
and others withἸωσὴφ ὁ ἀπὸ Ἁριμαθαίας (Joseph the from Arimathea)
The two best codices (Sinaiticus and Vaticanus) disagree here. The second alternative could also mean, that Joseph was not an inhabitant of Arimathea, but that he came currently from that place.Ἰωσὴφ ἀπὸ Ἁριμαθαίας (Joseph from Arimathea)
The only parallel to Josef "from/of" Arimathea (a person + ἀπὸ [from or of]) in GMark is Mark 1:9
The only parallel to Simon Cyrenian (a person + a surname which could be a location) is Mark 1:24Καὶ ἐγένετο ἐν ἐκείναις ταῖς ἡμέραις ἦλθεν Ἰησοῦς ἀπὸ Ναζαρὲτ τῆς Γαλιλαίας καὶ ἐβαπτίσθη εἰς τὸν Ἰορδάνην ὑπὸ Ἰωάνου
And it came to pass in those days: It came Jesus from Nazaret of Galilee and was baptized in the Jordan under John.
λέγων Τί ἡμῖν καὶ σοί, Ἰησοῦ Ναζαρηνέ
saying: What to us and to you, Jesus Nazarene
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Re: Joseph of Arimathea.
IMHO one of the most striking features of the burial of John is that his head ends up permanently separated from his body. This seems so distinctive (and possibly in some way symbolically important) that if makes it difficult for me to see the account of John's end as parallel to that of Jesus.Ben C. Smith wrote:Oh, I totally agree that the pericope itself does not identify Joseph as a disciple of Jesus. I already said that, for all we know from Mark, he may just be a pious Jew like Tobit.andrewcriddle wrote:Is Joseph of Arimathea in Mark a disciple or merely a pious member of the Sanhedrin ?
In the later gospels he is a disciple/follower of Jesus but Mark is much less clear.
For me the possibility of the pun derives from the earlier pericope (on the death of John the baptist) that Kunigunde Kreuzerin pointed out here: viewtopic.php?f=3&t=1603&start=20#p36804 (just the lefthand and righthand columns, not the middle one, which I do not see as very tightly related). The verbal similarities to the burial of Jesus are fairly clear; and in that context, comparing one pericope to another, I submit that Arimathea might be bouncing punwise off of the dutiful disciples of John. Not decided yet, but that is the best argument I have seen so far for the efficacy of the pun.
What do you think? Are the verbal overlaps just a consequence of overlapping subject matter, and no direct comparison between the disciples of John and those of Jesus is intended?
Ben.
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Re: Joseph of Arimathea.
If Mark invented the story we might speculate that he chosed the name „Joseph“ because Joseph buried Jacob (Israel) in the cave of the patriarchs in Mamre (both LXX and Mark has „mnemeion“). Mark 12:26-27 could lead to the assumption that Mark was thinking about the death of the patriarchs (… how God spoke to him, saying, ‘I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’? He is not God of the dead, but of the living.) Further: Joseph of Arimathea asks Pilate to bury Jesus as Joseph asked the Pharao to bury Jacob (Gen 50). Both were honourable counsellors. Joseph was the „best of the twelve“ and that could lead to the „best disciple“.
I worked hard to make sense of how Arimathea could be Ramath as a Markan theme or an OT-allusion. But it was not possible for me.
I worked hard to make sense of how Arimathea could be Ramath as a Markan theme or an OT-allusion. But it was not possible for me.
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Re: Joseph of Arimathea.
JW:Ben C. Smith wrote: I gave the evidence in the OP, where the Hebrew definite article does indeed get rendered as an initial alpha: compare Ramathaim-Zophim (הָרָמָתַ֛יִם צוֹפִ֖ים) in 1 Samuel 1.1 with the LXX transliteration in 1 Kingdoms 1.1 LXX (Αρμαθαιμ Σιφα).
I saw this the first time and was not impressed.
1 Samuel 1:1 [The Christian translators are struggling here with the original Hebrew (as Yeshu Barra would say, "sounds like deja Jew all over again") so I'm going to supplement with Chabad.org (Chabad corrections in blue)]
NASB © | Hebrew | Transliteration | Strong's | Definition | Origin |
Now there was | וַיְהִי | - | 8033 | there, thither | a prim. adverb |
was a certain one | אֶחָ֜ד | e·chad | 259 | one | a prim. card. number |
man | אִ֨ישׁ | ish | 376 | man | from an unused word |
from | מִן | mean | - | - | - |
from the Ramathaim-zophim | הָרָמָתַיִם צוֹפִים | tzo·v·fim | 7436 | "double height of watchers," a city in Ephraim | from ramah and tsaphah |
from the hill country from Mount | מֵהַ֣ר | me·har | 2022 | mountain, hill, hill country | of uncertain derivation |
of Ephraim, | אֶפְרָ֑יִם | ef·ra·yim; | 669 | a son of Joseph, also his desc. and their territory | from the same as apher |
JW:
At the risk of being labeled a deconstructionist here, I see the following problems with trying to take the above as support for the supposed underlying geographical location of "Mark's" (author) "Arimathea":
- 1) The definite article הָ (as I'm sure you know, the Hebrew at that time would not have had any vowels) before רָמָתַיִם צוֹפִים does not appear to indicate that a city follows (from the Ramoth*). The lack of a definite article would generally indicate a city (from Ramoth*).
2) It's unclear what הָרָמָתַיִם צוֹפִים means here. If it's unclear to the Rashi than I think it would be unclear to you.
3) הָרָמָתַיִם צוֹפִים sounds like and may refer to a clan.
4) 3) is supported by a definite location which follows, from "Mount Ephraim", which suggests that הָרָמָתַיִם צוֹפִים is not the location here.
5) Of course there was no separation of letters in the Hebrew (or Greek), so how could Christians be sure of rightly dividing הָרָמָתַיִם צוֹפִים?
6) If you take the הָ here as the definite article before the city of Ramoth, why add the definite article to a Greek transliteration for "Ramoth"?
7) Hebrew has two silent letters that could have an "a" sounding vowel, aleph and ayin. Are these ever transliterated into the Greek alpha?
Joseph
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