Gal 1:19 interpolation

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Giuseppe
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Re: Gal 1:19 interpolation

Post by Giuseppe »

@Bernard
>> Paul mentioned the Church of Jerusalem and members several times (1 Cor 16:1,3; 2 Cor 8:4, 13-15; 9:1, 12-15; Ga l2:1-10; Ro 15:25-26, 31) and acknowledged them as "saints" (1 Cor 16:1; 2 Cor 8:4; 9:1, 12; Ro 15:25, 26, 31). But despite these many opportunities in his epistles, Paul never said those were "in the Lord", or "in Christ", or just "brothers". However he used often these expressions to qualify other(s) as "Christian(s)": 1 Th 2:14, 3:8, 4:16, 5:12; 1 Cor 3:1, 4:15, 17, 9:1-2, 15:18,58, 16:19, 24; 2 Cor 1:21, 2:14, 17, 12:2; Php 1:14, 3:1, 4:1-2, 4, 10, 21; Phm 1:6, 8, 16, 20, 23; Gal 1:22, 3:14, 26, 28; 5:10; Ro 8:1, 12:5, 16:3, 7-13, 22<<
Sorry, but you should give evidence about Paul mentioning members explicitly by name, and in that case you have only 2/3 times in Galatians + 1 time in Corinthians. It's very little evidence.

It is also far too early to expect that ''brothers'' indicates only Gentile Christians while the ''holy'' only the original apostles in Jerusalem.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
Bernard Muller
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Re: Gal 1:19 interpolation

Post by Bernard Muller »

Sorry, but you should give evidence about Paul mentioning members explicitly by name, and in that case you have only 2/3 times in Galatians + 1 time in Corinthians. It's very little evidence.
Why should I give evidence about Paul mentioning members explicitly by name? I do not see your point.
It is also far too early to expect that ''brothers'' indicates only Gentile Christians
Why not? Where, in his epistles, do you think Paul included members of the Church of Jerusalem into his "brothers"?

Cordially, Bernard
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Giuseppe
Posts: 13732
Joined: Mon Apr 27, 2015 5:37 am
Location: Italy

Re: Gal 1:19 interpolation

Post by Giuseppe »

Why should I give evidence about Paul mentioning members explicitly by name?
in order to prove that in Gal 1:19, where a presumed member is quoted by name (''James''), can only be interpreted as literal biological brother ''of the Lord''.
Why not? Where, in his epistles, do you think Paul included members of the Church of Jerusalem into his "brothers"?
I don't have the need of doing that research, because in I CE it's very much early to expect a so distinct and strong border between the ''Church of Paul'' and the ''Church of Jerusalem'', quasi they were modern distinct religious sects.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
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