Was Aretas King of Damascus @ 2 Corinthians 11:32?

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JoeWallack
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Was Aretas King of Damascus @ 2 Corinthians 11:32?

Post by JoeWallack »

JW:
Regarding 2 Corinthians 11:32:
In Damascus the governor under Aretas the king guarded the city of the Damascenes in order to take me: (ASV)
this Thread will:
  • Identify

    Inventory

    Evaluate
evidence determining whether or not Aretas was King of Damascus at the time described in 2 Corinthians 11:32

The final step will be for the Thread to conclude, based on available evidence, which is more likely:
  • A) Aretas was not King of Damascus at the time described in 2 Corinthians 11:32.

    B) Aretas was King of Damascus at the time described in 2 Corinthians 11:32.
Particismartypants should at least skim through the companion Thread here (which started the whole mess):

Ethnarch of King Aretas? the legendary Damascus basket case

to get some background. That Thread combines at least 2 different possible errors in the offending verse:
  • 1) Aretas was King of Damascus at the time described in 2 Corinthians 11:32.

    2) King Aretas had an Ethnarch in Damascus at the time described in 2 Corinthians 11:32.
So Mark my words, This Thread is only for 1) Aretas was King of Damascus at the time described in 2 Corinthians 11:32 even though I consider the assertion that King Aretas had an Ethnarch in Damascus at the time described in 2 Corinthians 11:32 a # 2.

As near as I can tell, most defenders of the Faith of 2 Corinthians 11:32 in the preceding Thread agree that Aretas was not King of Damascus at the time but instead defend by placing an Ethnarch in their defense. I have hope for this Thread though that there is still no shortage of those who will offer as defense that Aretas was KIng of Damascus at the time. For example
:

Aretas IV Philopatris

[quote]The Christian Apostle, Paul, mentions that he had to sneak out of Damascus in a basket through a window in the wall to escape the Governor (ethnarch) of King Aretas. (2 Corinthians 11:32, 33, cf Acts 9:23, 24), The question remains open as to when King Aretas received Damascus from Caligula in the imperial settlement of the affairs of Syria. The Aretas’ administration in Damascus may have begun as early as AD 37 based upon archeological evidence in the form of a Damascus coin, with the image of King Aretas and the date 101. If that date points to the Pompeian era, it equals AD 37 (T. E. Mionnet, Description des medailles antiques greques et romaines, V [1811], 284f.)[/quote]

This appears to be a common assertion from Christian Bible scholars, 2 Corinthians 11:32 says that Aretas was King of Damascus so this is accepted as Gospel and than external evidence is only used to try and date the assertion.

Looking forward I myself have identified the following issues by subject which create doubt as to whether Aretas was King of Damascus at this time:

    [list]1) Dating. The externally known Aretas IV reigned until 40.

    2) Geographical. Aretas IV was king of Nabataea, on the wrong side of Israel from Damascus.

    3) Conflict. Aretas IV was in conflict with Rome late in his career.

    4) Source. Aretas III did control Damascus in the 1st century BCE establishing a source for error.

    5) Significance. It's unlikely that Rome would have granted outside control to a major city like Damascus.

    6) Reaction. "Luke", giving the same account, exorcises "Aretas" from the story.

    7) Implausibility. The related action claim of the verse, that Paul escaped via a basket through a window,
    is unlikely and if a story is generally unlikely, that makes the individual claims more likely to be in error. 

    8) Explanation. From a Literary Criticism standpoint Christian editing gives promotions to the authority of Paul's 
    competitors/adversaries[/list]

Now, on to determination. The first step in determining error is to determine what the offending verse likely says. Does it indicate that Aretas was King of Damascus at the time?:

2 Corinthians 11:32
 
[quote]Strong's----Transliteration- Greek------English---- Morphology
1722 [e]--- en-----------------ἐν-----------In----------Prep
1154 [e]--- Damaskō-- -------Δαμασκῷ--Damascus-N-DFS
3588 [e]--- ho-----------------ὁ-----------the----------Art-NMS
1481 [e]--- ethnarchēs------ ἐθνάρχης--governor-- N-NMS
702 [e]---- Hareta----------- Ἁρέτα*-----under Aretas--N-GMS
3588 [e]--- tou---------------τοῦ----------under the  Art-GMS
935 [e]----basileōs----------βασιλέως-- king-------N-GMS
5432 [e]--- ephrourei-------ἐφρούρει---was guarding -V-IIA-3S
3588 [e]--- tēn---------------τὴν----------the-------Art-AFS
4172 [e]--- polin-------------πόλιν-------city-------N-AFS
1153 [e]--- Damaskēnōn----Δαμασκηνῶν-of the Damascenes--Adj-GMP
4084 [e]--- piasai------------πιάσαι------to seize--V-ANA
1473 [e]--- me----------------με---------- me--------PPro-A1S[/quote]
 
Based on the above I think it likely that the offending verse does indicate that Aretas was King of Damascus at the time of the incident:

1) Natural reading. The above mentions one city, Damascus, and one King, Aretas. Therefore, the natural understanding is that it means that Aretas was King of Damascus. If we had no other external information, this would be the understanding. The only reason to avoid this understanding is because it would indicate error on the part of the author. Further, the letter is not addressed to historians of 1st century Levant. It is addressed to Corinthians. For the most part they would not have known what we do now and likely would have assumed based on what was written, that Aretas was King of Damascus. 

2) Definite article. "King" has the definite article before it. The Greek definite article has a much more complicated range of meaning dependent on modification and surroundings than the English definite article (consistent translation of "the" in English is a matter of convenience and not grammar). I believe though that in the genitive it is more likely to function as it would in English (another problem though is that as Scarface's King said to him, "of course not everyone always follows the rules"). Aretas is not any King here but the King of Damascus. As always, where the hell is Professor Gibson when you really need him. I will not weight this though until/unless it is blessed by a Professor of Biblical Greek. 

3) "Guarding the city" indicates total or at least major control of access. Damascus probably had seven gates at the time. Again, this indicates the authority of the King of the city. Different population groups likely used different gates to some extent. If Aretas was not the King of Damascus it's unlikely the real King would allow sufficient force present under a foreigner to control all seven gates. Since Aretas had either recently or even still currently been deemed an unfriendly by Rome, it is unlikely Rome would have allowed him a presence in Damascus. There's a word we use for that sort of thing. It's called "spy".

The challenge for the defenders here is to inventory examples of writings contemporary to Paul where:

[list]1) One King is mentioned.

2) One city is mentioned.

3) The King is described as having significant control over the city.
[/list]
And we know or at least it is likely that this King was not the King of the city mentioned. It needs to be an impressive list because if there are only a few such examples than we can conclude that this type of writing, by itself, normally would mean that the King mentioned is King of the city mentioned.

Again, don't annoy me with what is possible here. We are looking for what is likely.

Mazel tov.


Joseph

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spin
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Natural reading

Post by spin »

The notion of "natural reading" that Joe mentions is one that many people overlook when reading text. For example, when one reads the birth narrative in Matthew it indicates that Joseph[] was living in Bethlehem, as no change of location is given between Joseph's angelic visitation and the birth of Jesus, yet Jesus was born in Bethlehem, so the natural reading is that Joseph lived in Bethlehem. However, due to the extremely different birth narrative in Luke, the reader now brutally disrupts the Matthean narrative and inserts a mental note that between the angelic visitation and the birth, we get the trip from Nazareth to Bethlehem as per Luke. The natural reading is simply abandoned and we stop understanding Matthew.

I have long argued that we must be careful when we read texts that use "the lord" (κυριος) as a name and not a title ("the coming of the lord" v. "my lord Jesus"). For diaspora Greek-speaking Jews κυριος as a name was the means of referring to god, so when the diaspora Greek-speaking Paul uses κυριος as a name, we should expect him to be referring to god, but christianity has influenced us not to make the natural reading, for with the development of a more trinitarian understanding of the relation between god and Jesus κυριος as a name began to be used with Jesus. This caused the earlier use of κυριος for god to become confused with references to Jesus.

The natural reading of a text is an important aspect that a reader must deal with. It is not sufficient that one can manipulate a text to mean something, if that something is different from the natural reading. One has to justify differing from the natural reading, before one can say what the writer may have intended.

At the same time, one must be careful not to read into a text any modern idioms that sound natural to the modern reader. One needs to know what the original terms mean so as not to change the significance of the original text with later meanings and implications.

So, when you read 2 Cor 11:32, what does the text seem to say based on the words in the text alone? That must be your starting point in understanding the text. If you don't think what it seems to say is what the writer intended, you have to provide a justification for not accepting the natural reading.
Last edited by spin on Fri Nov 01, 2013 2:52 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Natural reading

Post by MrMacSon »

spin wrote: ... For example, when one reads the birth narrative in Matthew it indicates that Josephus was living in Bethlehem, as no change of location is given between Joseph's angelic visitation and the birth of Jesus, yet Jesus was born in Bethlehem, so the natural reading is that Joseph lived in Bethlehem. ..
Josephus ??
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Joseph

Post by spin »

MrMacSon wrote:
spin wrote: ... For example, when one reads the birth narrative in Matthew it indicates that Josephus was living in Bethlehem, as no change of location is given between Joseph's angelic visitation and the birth of Jesus, yet Jesus was born in Bethlehem, so the natural reading is that Joseph lived in Bethlehem. ..
Josephus ??
Oops. Joseph was living in Bethlehem, not Josephus.

Peter, puh-lease give us strikethrough markup!
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Aretas the king

Post by spin »

Here's a break up of the verse into semantic groups:

Location: εν δαμασκω [in Damascus]
Actor: ο εθναρχην αρετα του βασιλεων [the ethnarch of Aretas the king]
Verb: εφρουρει την δαμασκηνων πολιν [kept guard over the city of the Damascenes]
Purpose: πιασαι με θελων [to capture me wishing]

I have to agree with Bernard who stated in the other thread that the definite article in "Aretas the king", as it is part of the qualification of Aretas, does not necessarily transfer to Damascus, ie there is no grammatical connection here.
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Re: Was Aretas King of Damascus @ 2 Corinthians 11:32?

Post by stephan happy huller »

I still think you guys aren't following the right clues. Something must have led the editor to believe that Aretas could have had 'control' in some sense over Damascus. There must have been a source somewhere which left that possibility open for him or it was something he wanted to prove could be true for some reason. The solution may never come to us because we don't have the same texts available to us that he did. But something is behind this. It isn't just some random 'made up stuff.' The question again, what was leading the editor to posit that Aretas would have an interest in Paul? Maybe he was following the lead of Kasher - i.e. that Aretas and the Jews were in league together. Why he wanted this to be true I don't know.
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Re: Was Aretas King of Damascus @ 2 Corinthians 11:32?

Post by stephan happy huller »

Here is what Patrich says about Nabatean/Jewish relations:
In 4 B.C.E. Aretas IV provided auxiliaries to Varus, the Roman legate of Syria, in his campaign against the Jews,84 while Herod Antipas married one of his daughters. When Herod later divorced her, in about 21 C.E., the act, as well as territorial conflict over the Hauran, led to a war in which he was defeated.85 In 67 C.E., during the First Revolt of the Jews against Rome, Malichus II sent auxiliary forces to Vespasian, to help him suppress the rebellion.86
That's all we know I think
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Re: Was Aretas King of Damascus @ 2 Corinthians 11:32?

Post by spin »

stephan happy huller wrote:I still think you guys aren't following the right clues. Something must have led the editor to believe that Aretas could have had 'control' in some sense over Damascus.
Aretas did have control over Damascus, just not Aretas IV Philopatris. It's as simple as that. The story can be a simple misunderstanding of which Aretas (given that the text does not distinguish which Aretas), as long as you don't start with the notion that it needs to be genuine.
stephan happy huller wrote:There must have been a source somewhere which left that possibility open for him or it was something he wanted to prove could be true for some reason.
I've mentioned the fact that ταρσος is a word meaning basket (or basketing), which, though not used in 2 Cor 11:33, may be part of the solution to the mystery.
stephan happy huller wrote:The solution may never come to us because we don't have the same texts available to us that he did. But something is behind this. It isn't just some random 'made up stuff.' The question again, what was leading the editor to posit that Aretas would have an interest in Paul? Maybe he was following the lead of Kasher - i.e. that Aretas and the Jews were in league together. Why he wanted this to be true I don't know.
And Jeez, Stephan, cite your sources, such as the Patrich quote.
Herod later divorced her, in about 21 C.E.
Where do you reckon Patrich plucked that date from??
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Re: Was Aretas King of Damascus @ 2 Corinthians 11:32?

Post by arnoldo »

spin wrote:
stephan happy huller wrote: There must have been a source somewhere which left that possibility open for him or it was something he wanted to prove could be true for some reason.
I've mentioned the fact that ταρσος is a word meaning basket (or basketing), which, though not used in 2 Cor 11:33, may be part of the solution to the mystery.
Has anyone ever mentioned the possibility of a connection between the paralytic being lowered from the roof in Mark 2:42 and Paul being lowered from a window in 2Corinthians 11:33?
Mark 2:4

And when they could not come nigh unto him for the press, they uncovered the roof where he was: and when they had broken it up, they let down the bed wherein the sick of the palsy lay.

2 Corinthians 11:33


And through a window in a basket was I let down by the wall, and escaped his hands
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Re: Was Aretas King of Damascus @ 2 Corinthians 11:32?

Post by stephan happy huller »

That's interesting
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