Why 'Nazareth' ?

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
Secret Alias
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Re: Why 'Nazareth' ?

Post by Secret Alias »

From the other idiotic thread of this Giuseppe:

For those of us know something about something know that וּמִתַּחְתָּ֣יו doesn't mean 'from his place' but rather is from a root which means 'under.' That's why I translated the passage the way I did. But then again I am hindered by actual knowledge of what words mean. So - to get to Giuseppe's 1,000,000th useless conjecture - there is no connection between Zechariah 6:12 and Nazareth. Tahat means 'under' but is translated a number of different ways by English translators. In modern Hebrew slang it can mean 'ass' so a homosexual is one who 'eats in the ass' - ohel ba tahat. Kiss my ass - shakli ba tahat! It is notoriously hard to translate ideas from one language to another. So 'from his place' in the translation is in Hebrew literally 'from under him,' which can be taken to mean 'from his own root.' Yet to keep with the solar imagery I have chosen to interpret it 'from the underworld.' Too bad Giuseppe doesn't spend the time to learn things before making up millions of stupid theories.
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
― Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra, Don Quixote
Giuseppe
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Re: Why 'Nazareth' ?

Post by Giuseppe »

Secret Alias wrote:For those of us know something about something know that וּמִתַּחְתָּ֣יו doesn't mean 'from his place' but rather is from a root which means 'under.' That's why I translated the passage the way I did. But then again I am hindered by actual knowledge of what words mean.
I have read by Andrew that Philo did use the Septuagint, not the Jewish Bible.

I know that the evangelist wrote in Greek.

Therefore your knowledge of Aramaic has minor utility in respect to what we are saying here.

I have quoted the words of a recent scholar that sees a clear link between ANATOLE and BRANCH and MESSIANIC-DAVIDIC HOPES. (not only in Philo, but in Matthew, the Talmud, et alia)

From here I have made my inference:

1) if Philo is witness of the messianic use of Zech 6:12 (ANATOLE meaning BRANCH), and
2) if a possible (even probable) meaning of Nazarene is 'of the branch of David' (see Adamczewski, see Bartimeus)
3)then: the midrashical source behind Matth 2:23 is Zech 6:12.

I invoke the admin against your insults, dear Secret Alias, because you are correct that I am ignorant in these languages, but you are ignoring that I am basing my inferences on scholar's quotes. If you are coherent, you shold say the the author I have quoted is more ignorant than me. If I am doing mere cherry-picking is another discourse.

Note that Matt 2:23 talks about the prophets at plural.

Zech 6:12 was an oracle given by ''one of the companions of Moses'', meaning Moses was the prophet, and his words were recorded by his companions. Together and + Zecharia himself, they were ''the prophets''.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
Giuseppe
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Re: Why 'Nazareth' ?

Post by Giuseppe »

Secret Alias, see the Greek of Zech 6:12, please.

@GakuseiDon
The better sort coming from the east is the Platonic Adam, who is the firstborn son of God, made in the image of God and is the archetypal pattern.
(GakuseiDon's exegesis of Philo about Zech 6:12)

(Matt 2:23)
And he went and settled in a city called Nazareth, that the word through the prophets might be fulfilled, “He will be called a Nazarene”.
Now we know why Nazaret.

Zechariah 6:12:
12 Tell him this is what the Lord Almighty says: ‘Here is the man whose name is the Branch, and he will branch out from his place and build the temple of the Lord.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
Japhethite
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Re: Why 'Nazareth' ?

Post by Japhethite »

A tentative thesis paper of mine a few years ago was that Nazareth is really Nabratein in north/upper Galilee near Safed, not "Nazareth" in lower/sw Galilee. (It is claimed that the sw Nazareth wasn't around in Jesus times.) (The paper is not currently online or in public but i have rough copy i can send anyone.)
(SOrry i wasn't able to read through all 7 pages of the thread, and I don't have the time & situation having to defend myself here, so is just a brief comment.)
"Community Fluoridation" = compulsory Mass Medication.
Secret Alias
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Re: Why 'Nazareth' ?

Post by Secret Alias »

GIUSEPPE

YOU ASK ME TO LOOK AT THE GREEK. DID YOU?
Καὶ ὑποκάτωθεν αὐτοῦ ἀνατελεῖ,

WHAT DO YOU MAKE OF THUS GIUSEPPE? HOW DO RENDER THIS?
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
― Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra, Don Quixote
Secret Alias
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Re: Why 'Nazareth' ?

Post by Secret Alias »

You clearly never read the Greek so why are you waving your hands at me armed with an English translation? You are wasting everyone's time
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
― Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra, Don Quixote
Japhethite
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Re: Why 'Nazareth' ?

Post by Japhethite »

Nasor/Hazor (1 Maccabees 11:67). Arzareth (2 Esdras 13). Nozrei_ha-Brit ("keepers of the covenant"). Yeishu ha- Notzri (Maccabean times, Talmud). Notzri/Noztri ("shoot/sprout/branch"). najjar/naggar ("initiate/carpenter/mason/adept"). nasrani ("a school of small fish"). netzarim "watch".
"Community Fluoridation" = compulsory Mass Medication.
Giuseppe
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Re: Why 'Nazareth' ?

Post by Giuseppe »

Secret Alias wrote:You clearly never read the Greek so why are you waving your hands at me armed with an English translation? You are wasting everyone's time

Secret Alias, I answer here on my view on Nazaret:
viewtopic.php?f=3&t=1944&start=340#p42954

At first post of this thread you should read the Adamzcewski's view (that I use as premise).
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
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