@GakuseiDon
As I wrote above, none of this has any direct bearing on the Logos and Messiah figures, and certainly nothing to do with a Joshua figure who was considered the image of God and the Logos. All Carrier can claim is that some pre-Christians interpreted Philo as doing so, in the exact way that Carrier wants. But there is no evidence for this. To me it's just bad apologetics, in the same way that apologists try to explain away inconsistencies in the Bible.
Even if I like the Andrew's argument, I find an academic book that contradicts explicitly what you claim, and precisely
against this your point:
No he doesn't. Balaam is nowhere portrayed as an "anti-messianic figure". Keep in mind that the overall theme of Philo's "On the Confusion of Tongues" is providing the explanation for the allegory behind the story in Genesis whereby the building of the tower of Babel led to the confusion of languages. His explanation has no direct bearing on Messiah figures, and certainly nothing to do with a Joshua figure.
I read:
Immediately following his best example of rising, the man whom God named Rising, Philo introduces Balaam, of the worst kind of rising, whom Balak sent for apò anatolòn and who lived pros anatolàis. Balaam is here described as someone who wished to curse one whom God praised:
(Conf. 64-65a) ...
These are the only two personal examples of antithetical risings here: Philo appears to have set the man of Zech 6.12 and Balaam in opposition here as type and antitype.
Even though Philo does not make the connection explicit, the eschatological ruler of the nations from Num 24.7, who is the “incontestably messianic” man in Num 24:17, may be identified with the man named Rising, also a messianic figure. In this sense, J. de Savignac rightly contends that Philo's exposition of Zec 6:12 in De confusione linguarum 62-64 is an “assimilation of the Logos and Messiah.”
A comparison of Philo's citations of Num 24.7 (Mos. 1.290 and Praem. 95) and Zech 6.12 (Conf. 62-63), assuming that Philo also knew Num 24.17, reveals that the key overlapping words are anthropos and anatéllo:
...
Since these divine promises of the coming messianic man had been preserved by Moses or “one of his companions” (Conf. 62), Philo confidently expected their fulfillment. The only two biblical texts wich Philo reads in a purportedly messianic way are Zech 6.12 and Num 24.7 (and by extension, Num 24.17). Philo is certainly to be included with the Qumran scribes and other early exegetes of the scriptures, whose messianic exegesis merged the figures in Num 24 and Zech 6.12.
In sum, a combined messianic reading of the man from the Balaam oracles in Num 24.7, 17 and the man from Zech 6.12 has been confirmed as early as the first century C.E. Zecharia 6.12 is therefore an inextricable component of the Branch-ANATOLE-man-star-sceptre complex of messianic terminology around the turn of the common era. It is thus possible that Matthew could have encountered some form of this conflated messianic figure - the man of Num 24 and Zech 6.12 - in his traditional material. Whether consciously or unconsciously, the First Gospel has built on this coalesced messianic imagery in its Infancy Narrative.
(free extract from
The Zechariah Tradition and the Gospel of Matthew, Charlene McAfee Moss, p. 34-36)
If you read the following pages, the author says that the Magi episode in Matthew uses Balaam as midrashical source (coming both from ANATOLE). From what I understand in a superficial way, the midrash would be along these lines:
1) Balaam cannot curse who he wants.
2) The magi cannot bless the Son because Herod prevents them.
What I find more important is the link ANATOLE=branch.
When Matthew says that he ''will be called NAZARENE according to scriptures'', these ''scriptures'' can be just
Zech 6:12 : what the author of the book calls ''Branch-ANATOLE-
man-star-sceptre complex of messianic terminology around the turn of the common era''.
1) The MAN comes from ANATOLE
2) ANATOLE is a messianic title, meaning branch, as neser the radix of Nazarene.
3) therefore: Jesus comes from NAZARET.
As I said above, my question is: as
collateral effect of the exegesis of Philo et al. of Zech 6:12 as a prophetical text (the great
Moses,
via one of his companions, was the PROPHET in question), can the same name of the
Rising in Zech. (i.e.: Joshua son ofJosedec', Joshua being a ''name of the noblest states'', for Philo), be given to the Messiah?