First, I think the epistle was not written by Peter, and it was composed well after 70 CE (I prefer from 75 to 80 CE).Out of curiosity, what would Babylon mean in 1 Peter if not Rome? Do you think it means the actual Babylon?
- If the author wanted the readers to understand "Babylon" by being Rome, that means that his audience did not think (or did not accept the rumors about) Peter died under Nero or during the war of 66-70 CE (Rome could only be thought as Babylon not sooner than after 70 CE)
- If the author wanted the readers to understand "Babylon" as being Babylon, that means that the letter could be believed to be written at any times, when Peter was still alive.
I would opt with my first option as for what the author wanted his audience to interpret "Babylon". But if anyone believed Peter was already dead for some time, then they would fall back on "Babylon" as being really Babylon.
Also, how do you interpret (and to what time period do you date) Ascension of Isaiah 4.2-3?
Yes there is a parallel. And yes, there is a reference of Nero having Peter arrested (likely to be killed). The main villain here is Beliar, first incarnated as Nero and next (from 4.4?) as a bad ruler still to come. But the chapter is probably the result of several interpolations. However because it borrowed from Revelation, part of that chapter, the mini apocalypse, was written after this later book was known, probably much later by Christians.This passage from the Ascension of Isaiah would seem to find a parallel in the Rainer fragment of the Apocalypse of Peter (text and translation from M. R. James):
Cordially, Bernard