Mark's „ὅ ἐστιν“

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Re: Mark's „ὅ ἐστιν“

Post by Kunigunde Kreuzerin »

Ben C. Smith wrote:I do not (yet) know whether this activity, preparation (for the Sabbath), is ever associated with any day other than Friday, however. But, at any rate, there are some references to chew on.
Sorry for the long break. Had a lot to do. It seems that my question can't be decided. But there may be some interesting points. For example, I think that the Dura-Europos Gospel can be read without problem in that way.

day of preparation = day associated with the activity
preparation = activity
Sabbath = day
Pro-Sabbaton (before-Sabbath) = preparation = activity in the last hours (evening) before the Sabbath

Dura-Europos 0212
Dura-Europos 0212
Dura-Europos 0212
[/b]
3 [Γαλιλαί]α̣ς ὁρῶσαι τὸν στ(αυρωθέντ)α. ἦν δὲ
4 [ἡ ἡμέρ]α παρασκευή. σάββατον ἐπέφω-
5 [σκεν. ὀ]ψίας δὲ γενομένης ἐπὶ τ̣[ῇ π]α̣ρ̣[α-]
6 [σκευῇ
], ὅ ἐστιν προσάββατον, προσ-
7 [ῆλθεν] ἄνθρωπος βουλευτὴ̣[ς ὑ]πά̣ρ̣-
3 [Galile]e to see the cr(ucified) one. And it was
4 [the] Preparation [da]y. Sabbath was dawn-
5 [ing.] And as it was becoming [e]vening upon t[he] [P]r[e]p-
6 [aration,] that is, before the Sabbath, there [came]
7 forward a man, be[ing] a councillo[r]
3 [Galile]e to see the cr(ucified) one. And it was
4 [the] [da]y of Preparation. Sabbath was dawn-
5 [ing.] And as it was becoming [e]vening upon t[he] [p]r[e]p-
6 [aration,]
that is, Before-Sabbath, there [came]
7 forward a man, be[ing] a councillo[r]

Basically, „preparation“ seems to be the preferred Christian terminology in relation to Jesus' burial. Luke omitted „Pro-Sabbaton“ (Before-Sabbath). Basser/Cohen noted about Matthew 27:62 („The next day, that is, after the day of Preparation ...“)
It is therefore strange that Matthew would refer to “the day that followed the day of Preparation” rather than to “the Sabbath.” What seems to be meant here by “day of Preparation” is the designated day of Jesus' burial—which had to be finished before the Sabbath. Luke is very clear on this point.
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Re: Mark's „ὅ ἐστιν“

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote:Basically, „preparation“ seems to be the preferred Christian terminology in relation to Jesus' burial. Luke omitted „Pro-Sabbaton“ (Before-Sabbath). Basser/Cohen noted about Matthew 27:62 („The next day, that is, after the day of Preparation ...“)
It is therefore strange that Matthew would refer to “the day that followed the day of Preparation” rather than to “the Sabbath.” What seems to be meant here by “day of Preparation” is the designated day of Jesus' burial—which had to be finished before the Sabbath. Luke is very clear on this point.
Indeed, Matthew 27.62 has always sounded odd to me, basically tantamount to calling Saturday "the day after Friday" instead of using its own name. Good point.
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Re: Mark's „ὅ ἐστιν“

Post by Kunigunde Kreuzerin »

.
1) state of discussion

- judged 5 juxtapositions with the phrase „ὅ ἐστιν“ as translations
- shift of language: from Aramaic (or Hebrew) to Greek
MarkTerm AlanguageTerm Blanguage
5:41"Talitha koum!"Aramaic"Little girl, I say to you, get up!"Greek
15:22place GolgothaAramaic or Hebrewplace of skullGreek
15:34"Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?"Aramaic"My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"Greek
7:11corbanHebrewa giftGreek
7:34“Ephphatha“Aramaic“Be opened“Greek


2) current problem Mark 15:42
And already evening having arrived since it was „paraskeve“ which is (ὅ ἐστιν) „prosabbaton“ ...
2.1) shift of language

Words like „Golgotha“, „Ephphatha“ or „sabachthani“ are Aramaic words transliterated with Greek letters (in GMark). But „prosabbaton“ is a Greek loanword from Aramaic. „pro“ is a Greek prefix („before“), „sabbaton“ is the loanword.

Therefore the correct shift of language is
MarkTerm AlanguageTerm Blanguage
15:42paraskeve (preparation)Greekprosabbaton (before-Sabbath)Greek
loanword from Aramaic (or Hebrew)

2.2) literary function

The literary function is here not a translation, but the words could be synonyms in the context of a different word usage.

- maybe a different regional word usage
- or maybe „paraskeve“ was in Mark's time the more modern term and „prosabbaton“ the older term
- or maybe ...


2.3.) the words

prosabbaton (before-Sabbath, before resting)
sources:
- LXX (Psalm 92:1, Judith 8:6, see also 2 Makk 8:26 „ἡ πρὸ τοῦ σαββάτου“ - „the before the Sabbath“)
- an ancient metallic icosahedron (a toy or oracle?) - Egypt, 4th-3rd c. BC

It may be of interest that gentile Roman writers knew and used the word „sabbatum“ and wrote against gentile Sabbath-sympathizer and the Jewish Sabbath observance. I think we can assume that the Gentiles in the 1st century knew very well what Sabbath was.


paraskeve (preparation, getting ready)
The problem here is the context.

Christian context
We have evidence that early Christians used „paraskeve“ with the meaning „Friday“. Sources:
- Didache 8:1, Martyrdom of Polycarp 7:1
- the Greeks named (up to today) their Friday „paraskeve“, Christian martyrs and saints had the name Paraskeve
- a Christian epitaph (Thanks to Ben!)
Ben C. Smith wrote:1. "New Docs 3, 80" = G. H. R. Horsley, New Documents Illustrating Early Christianity, entry 58 (παρασκευή), page 80:

At New Docs 1977, 67, a possible example was noted of an abbreviation for παρασκευή meaning 'Friday'. A more certain instance is afforded by IGCB 19 (Corinth, VI), a fragmentary Christian epitaph which concludes by providing the date when the deceased died (presumably): μη(νὶ) Σεπ[τεμβρίῳ] ἡμέρα | παρα[σκευή] (Il. 8-9, Bees' reading). Though the final word is partly restored, it can hardly be in doubt in such a dating context. But it should be noted that ἡμέρα cannot be read in Bees' photo of the stone: should the text perhaps read [ἡμέρᾳ] | παρα[σκευῆς]? At Il. 4-6 on the stone the wording λόγ(ον) δώση τῷ κ(υρίο)υ (sic) alludes to Rom. 14.12.

Jewish context
No evidence that Greek-speaking Jews used „paraskeve“ with the meaning „Friday“ or „before-Sabbath“
possible sources: Josephus (Ant 16:6:2), Synesius (epistle 4)

Josephus quoted or referred to an Edict of Augustus on Jewish Rights (1 BC). He wrote:
ἐγγύας τε μὴ ὁμολογεῖν αὐτοὺς ἐν σάββασιν ἢ τῇ πρὸ αὐτῆς παρασκευῇ ἀπὸ ὥρας ἐνάτης
A usual translation is
and that they be not obliged to go before any judge on the sabbath day, nor on the day of the preparation to it after the ninth hour (3 p.m.)
The problem is that Josephus doesn't write the word „day“ (ἡμέρα – hémera). But it is not necessary in Greek to write the word „day“. It could be indicated (for an example see Mark 11:12). There are 3 possibilities:

a) the word „day“ is indicated
b) „paraskeve“ was also in Jewish context a fixed term for that day or a time of day
c) Josephus (or the Edict of Augustus) used the word simply with the meaning „preparation“ as an activity associated with the afternoon before the Sabbath

I think the first possibility a) can be ruled out. In that case (I assume) one would expect the word „paraskeve“ rather in genitive and not in dative (as it was written). So it comes down to b) or c).

Synesius of CyreneChristian (!) author, „very“ late
Ben C. Smith wrote:3. "Synes., Ep. 4 p. 161d" = Synesius, Epistle 4:

[11] Well, we were perforce satisfied with his explanation so long as daylight lasted and dangers were not imminent, but these failed not to return with the approach of night, for as the hours passed, the seas increased continually in volume. Now it so happened that this was the day on which the Jews make what they term the "Preparation" [ἡμέρα μὲν ἦν ἥντινα ἄγουσιν οἱ Ἰουδαῖοι παρασκευήν], and they reckon the night, together with the day following this, as a time during which it is not lawful to work with one's hands. They keep this day holy and apart from the others, and they pass it in rest from labor of all kinds.

Synesius is pretty late (overlapping century IV and V), so of course this may not reflect common usage from century I, but this reference is the most interesting so far, I think, when it comes to evaluating your idea. This instance, despite BDAG using it in order to support the noun as the name of a day of the week, seems to denote the actual activity: "the day on which the Jews make preparation."]
2.4) the Gospels

- In Mark, Matthew, Luke, the Dura-Europos Gospel and also in John 19:31 the word „paraskeve“ is associated with the Sabbath. In John 19:14 it is associated with the passover.
John 19:14 - it was moreover the paraskeve of the passover
- In Mark, John and the Dura-Europos Gospel the word „paraskeve“ seems to refer rather to the afternoon than to the day before the Sabbath.
Mark 15:42 - And already evening having arrived since it was paraskeve
John 19:14 - It was moreover the paraskeve of the passover, the hour was about the sixth
Dura-Europos - And as it was becoming evening upon the paraskeve
- In Luke and Matthew „paraskeve“ seems to refer rather to the day before the Sabbath. In the Dura-Europos Gospel „paraskeve“ is also additionally associated with day.
Matthew 27:62 – Moreover on the next (indicated: day) which is after the paraskeve
Luke 23:54 – And day it was (of) paraskeve (genitive)
Dura-Europos – It was moreover the day paraskeve (nominative?)
2.5) summary

Scholarly consensus is that „paraskeve“ was a fixed term in Jewish context for the day before the Sabbath.
Ben C. Smith wrote:Well, this is what I have so far.... The relevant portion of the BAGD entry goes as follows (underlining mine):

παρασκευή, ῆς, ἡ (s. prec. entry; trag., Hdt.+; Ath. 15, 2) prim. sense ‘preparation’ (Hdt. 9, 82 and Polyaenus 7, 21, 6 τοῦ δείπνου; 7, 27, 3 πολέμου), in our lit. only of a definite day, as the day of preparation for a festival; acc. to Israel’s usage (in this sense only in late pap, s. New Docs 3, 80; Jos., Ant. 16, 163; Synes., Ep. 4 p. 161d) it was Friday, on which day everything had to be prepared for the Sabbath, when no work was permitted....

In this case „paraskeve“ and „prosabbaton“ in Mark 15:42 may be synonyms in a context of a different regional word usage or „paraskeve“ was in Mark's time the more modern term. One possibility could be, that the Greeks favoured “paraskeve” and the Romans “prosabbaton”. But here may be of interest that the Old Latin versions and the Vulgate translated

„paraskeve“ with that Greek loan word as „parasceue” and
„prosabbaton” with “ante sabbatum“

I don't assume it, but I surmise that „paraskeve“ was never a fixed term of the Greek-speaking Jews, but a Christian term. In this case „paraskeve“ and „prosabbaton“ in Mark 15:42 may be synonyms in a context of a different word usage of Christians and Greek-speaking Jews with different connotations. In this scenario the literal meaning of “paraskeve” (preparation, getting ready) and of “prosabbaton” (before the rest-day, before resting) could be relevant.

But we don't know in what kind of different word usage Mark used the words. Therefore - hoping that Ben would agree to it - one can only say that “paraskeve” and “prosabbaton” in Mark 15:42 are

probably synonyms in a context of a different word usage.
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Re: Mark's „ὅ ἐστιν“

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote:But we don't know in what kind of different word usage Mark used the words. Therefore - hoping that Ben would agree to it - one can only say that “paraskeve” and “prosabbaton” in Mark 15:42 are

probably synonyms in a context of a different word usage.
So far it does seem plausible. I guess I wish we had more explicit data from the Jewish side of things. A negative statement ("for Greek-speaking Jews the term 'preparation' did not mean the day; rather, it meant the activity") is exactly the kind of thing one chance discovery in the desert could overturn. But yes, the contrast with how the Christians used the term seems suggestive.
Last edited by Ben C. Smith on Wed Aug 03, 2016 5:20 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: Mark's „ὅ ἐστιν“

Post by Kunigunde Kreuzerin »

.
1) current problem Mark 15:16
But the soldiers led away him within the "aule" which is (ὅ ἐστιν) „praetorium“ ...
1.1) shift of language

MarkTerm AlanguageTerm Blanguage
15:16auleGreekpraitorionLatin

1.2) literary function

The literary function is here not a translation. All early Latin translations translated the word αὐλή (aulé) with the Latin word “atrium”. Further, the Romans knew the word αὐλή (aulé) because in Latin there is the loanword “aula” and the Greeks knew the word praetorium. No need for a translation.

(Cod. Vercellensis: the original final pages after Mk 15:15 have been lost)
Mark 15:16ἔσω τῆς αὐλῆςὅ ἐστινπραιτώριον
Cod. Bezaein atriumquod estpraetorii
Vulgateintro in atriumnot translatedpraetorii

1.3.) the words

The Greek word αὐλή (aulé), properly a place open to the air, covers a range of meaning similar to the English word “court”, from an uncovered space around the house enclosed by a wall and the open court-yard of a house to greater courts like the courts of the temple and to the house itself as a palace (residence of a king etc) or the hall of a palace.

The same applies to the Latin word praetorium. It can mean the tent of the praetor or the place before it or his residence or the whole camp of the praetorian soldiers or the palace of a Roman governor.

2) problem

The problem is to what Mark 15:16 refers. If it refers to a real historical court or building in Jerusalem then the words αὐλή and praetorium may be expressions for the same court or building in a different word usage (locals, Romans ?). But if it refers to the meaning of the words itself in the context of the mocking of the soldiers then it may be a transition of meaning from a more civil term to a military term.
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Re: Mark's „ὅ ἐστιν“

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Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote:.
1) current problem Mark 15:16
But the soldiers led away him within the "aule" which is (ὅ ἐστιν) „praetorium“ ...
1.1) shift of language

MarkTerm AlanguageTerm Blanguage
15:16auleGreekpraitorionLatin

1.2) literary function

The literary function is here not a translation.
We are marching to pretoria

JW:
Yes, a literary function. A tribute (so to speak) to Paul I think. Paul as possible source should always be on the Wordmeister's list:

Philippians 1
12 Now I would have you know, brethren, that the things [which happened] unto me have fallen out rather unto the progress of the gospel;

13 so that my bonds became manifest in Christ throughout the whole praetorian guard, and to all the rest;

14 and that most of the brethren in the Lord, being confident through my bonds, are more abundantly bold to speak the word of God without fear.
Paul's theology here is rich in source material for "Mark's" (author) narrative:
  • 1) The sufferings of the Gospel follower help promote the Gospel.

    2) The physical/spiritual contrast/comparison of being physically bound by men and being spiritually bound by Christ. (And even as a member of the disloyal opposition I give nod to this literary allusion).

    3) Suffering of the Gospel follower as example to witnesses, including persecutors.

    4) Even those participating with bad/wrong intent are still promoting the Gospel.
I have faith that "Mark" intentionally mistranslated the Latin here as a sign for his Latin audience for them to find the word in Paul and understand the theological context here in Paul that is behind "Mark's" corresponding narrative.


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Re: Mark's „ὅ ἐστιν“

Post by Charles Wilson »

John 19: 13 - 17 (RSV):

[13] When Pilate heard these words, he brought Jesus out and sat down on the judgment seat at a place called The Pavement, and in Hebrew, Gab'batha.
[14] Now it was the day of Preparation of the Passover; it was about the sixth hour. He said to the Jews, "Behold your King!"
[15] They cried out, "Away with him, away with him, crucify him!" Pilate said to them, "Shall I crucify your King?" The chief priests answered, "We have no king but Caesar."
[16] Then he handed him over to them to be crucified.
[17] So they took Jesus, and he went out, bearing his own cross, to the place called the place of a skull, which is called in Hebrew Gol'gotha.

Why are these two words, so similar in form, so close together? Apologetix had argued over this for 2000 years and have torn up entire shopping malls to see if they could find something.
Why not see that the Author(s) were making a Word-Play, a Joke of the situation?

"Golgotha" <=> "Gabbatha" <=> "Galba-Otho"?

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Re: Mark's „ὅ ἐστιν“

Post by Kunigunde Kreuzerin »

JoeWallack wrote:A tribute (so to speak) to Paul I think. Paul as possible source should always be on the Wordmeister's list:
No doubt.

1) current problem Mark 12:42
And having come one poor widow cast two “lepta” which is (ὅ ἐστιν) „kodrantes (quadrans)” ...
shift of language

MarkTerm AlanguageTerm Blanguage
12:42leptaGreekkodrantes (quadrans)Latin

2) two lepta

The literary function is not a translation but valuation.

Ben and I discussed that there was no ancient coin with the name “lepton”. It is just an adjective meaning "small". In the ancient sources before Mark it is used as an adjective with a noun, in the sense of a “small or light or thin” coin. It means simply “two smalls”. It could be some kind of slang or it could be that Mark did not wish to specify the two coins of the widow.

This observation was backed by the early Latin translations. All translated “lepta” not as a name of a coin.
Mark 12:42λεπτὰ δύο (smalls two)ὅ ἐστινκοδράντης
Cod. Bezaeaera duo (coppers/bronzes two)quod estquadrans
Cod. Vercellensisminuta duo (smalls two)quod estquadrans
Vulgateduo minuta (two smalls)quod estquadrans

The quadrans (meaning quarter) was the name of the smallest Roman copper coin, a quarter of an as.
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Re: Mark's „ὅ ἐστιν“

Post by Kunigunde Kreuzerin »

.
In the gospel of Mark is one example of a similar phrase - Mark 7:2 “τοῦτ’ ἔστιν“ (this is)

1) current problem Mark 7:2
and having seen some of his disciples that with “κοιναῖς“(koinais) hands this is (τοῦτ’ ἔστιν) unwashed (ἀνίπτοις) are eating the bread

No shift of language
MarkTerm AlanguageTerm Blanguage
7:2κοιναῖςGreekἀνίπτοις (unwashed)Greek

2) the adjective κοινός (koinos)

We all know the adjective κοινός from the feminine expression [wiki][/wiki] “Koine Greek”.
The word koinē (κοινή) is the Greek word for "common", and is here understood as referring to "the common dialect" (ἡ κοινὴ διάλεκτος).
Like the English word “common” it can mean in a negative sense low, vulgar, ordinary and so on, in the NT often unclean or impure.


3) the interesting point

At first glance Mark told the story in Mark 7:2 like an objective report but we know that Mark’s Jesus (and also Paul) disagree with the mentioned “Pharisees and some of the scribes”
Mark 7:15 “There is nothing from outside of the man, that going into him can defile him.”


The opinion of Jesus’ enemies is repeated in Mark 7:5
And the Pharisees and the scribes asked him, “Why do your disciples not walk according to the tradition of the elders, but eat with “κοιναῖς“ (koinais) hands?

Their argument is not that the hands are unwashed, but that they are “κοιναῖς“ (koinais).

Paul wrote in Romans 14:14
I am convinced, being fully persuaded in the Lord Jesus, that nothing is unclean (κοινὸν) in itself. But if anyone regards something as unclean (κοινὸν), then for that person it is unclean (κοινόν).

To Paul the adjective "κοινός" (koinos) in the sense of unclean or impure is a subjective judgement and not an objective fact.


4) the literary function of “τοῦτ’ ἔστιν“ (this is)


subjective seeing of the Pharisees and the scribessubjective judgementwhat it is in itselfobjective factXobjective reason of the subjectivity
and having seen some of his disciples that (with)“κοιναῖς“(koinais) handsthis is (τοῦτ’ ἔστιν)unwashed (ἀνίπτοις)are eating the breadMk 7:3 For the Pharisees and all the Jews do not eat unless they wash (νίψωνται) their hands properly, holding to the tradition of the elders

[/size]
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Re: Mark's „ὅ ἐστιν“

Post by Kunigunde Kreuzerin »

.
Summary and a little idea

1) summary
- 5 juxtapositions with the phrase „ὅ ἐστιν“ as translations
MarkTerm AlanguageTerm Blanguage
5:41"Talitha koum!"Aramaic"Little girl, I say to you, get up!"Greek
15:22place GolgothaAramaic or Hebrewplace of skullGreek
15:34"Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?"Aramaic"My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"Greek
7:11corbanHebrewa giftGreek
7:34“Ephphatha“Aramaic“Be opened“Greek

- 3 juxtapositions with the phrase „ὅ ἐστιν“ not as translations
MarkTerm AlanguageTerm Blanguage
15:42paraskeve (preparation)Greekprosabbaton (before-Sabbath)Greek loanword from Aramaic (or Hebrew)
15:16courtGreekpraitorion (praetorium)Latin
12:42two leptaGreeka kodrantes (quadrans)Latin

- 1 juxtaposition with the phrase „τοῦτ’ ἔστιν“ as comparison of subjective judgement and objective fact
MarkTerm AlanguageTerm Blanguage
7:2impure (κοιναῖς)Greekunwashed (ἀνίπτοις)Greek


2) a little idea
A couple of months ago, Ben and I discussed what function the phrase „ὅ ἐστιν“ has. Is the “quadrans” in Mark 12:42 a good argument for Mark’s Roman readership? Or is he a twist in Mark’s story?

At least I find it interesting that the Aramaic loanword touch a important Jewish topic and the Latin loanwords important Roman topics.
MarkTerm AlanguageTerm Blanguage topic related stories
7:2impure (κοιναῖς)Greekunwashed (ἀνίπτοις)Greek ritual purification- cleansing the leper
- eating with tax collectors and sinners
12:42two leptaGreeka kodrantes (quadrans)Latin financial exploitation through the Romans- paying taxes to Caesar
15:16courtGreekpraitorion (praetorium)Latin Roman military power and occupation- probably driving pigs into the sea
15:42paraskeve (preparation)Greekprosabbaton (before-Sabbath)Greek loanword from Aramaic (or Hebrew) Sabbath observance- plucking grain on the Sabbath
- healing on the Sabbath

This could offer the following possibility

MarkHow Mark saw itHow the Jews/Romans saw it
7:2unwashedimpure (Jews)
12:42two smallsa quadrans (Romans)
15:16courtpraetorium (Romans)
15:42preparationbefore-Sabbath (Jews)

btw all topics can be found in Josephus’ story about Gessius Florus (Wars, book 2, chapter 14)
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