The parable of the talents or pounds/minas.

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MrMacSon
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Re: The parable of the talents or pounds/minas.

Post by MrMacSon »

Ben C. Smith wrote: I agree. My OP and its follow-up is actually an (admittedly simplified) attempt to core out a small section of this kind of layering.
Yes, I gathered that. I wanted to overtly state it.

Moreover, I meant
  • Matthew & Luke (& *other* texts) could have been written [or redacted] in overlapping time periods ...
    • cf. 'there' or 'their' texts ... I have edited my previous post
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Re: The parable of the talents or pounds/minas.

Post by Tenorikuma »

Thanks for the interesting analysis, Ben. If I have time I'll try to engage with some of your observations.

I'll admit nothing is conclusive about this parable. When I started examining it, I expected Goodacre's theory to hold up. However, the cumulative balance of evidence tilts it the other way for me (Matthean posteriority). Ultimately, I intend to analyze every pericope this way.

For what it's worth, the one that really has me convinced is the Beelzebul controversy. I don't see how you can reconstruct that if Luke used Matthew.
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Re: The parable of the talents or pounds/minas.

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Bernard Muller wrote:I cannot see why both "Matthew" and "Luke" could not have worked from an original Q parable. And I think, overall, that gMatthew is closer to that Q parable than gLuke.
What would be the evidence against this hypothesis?
Sorry. I skipped this post for some reason.

It is not so much that there is solid evidence against it; rather, it is that it does not even attempt to account for the Hebraic version. One can always simply aver that the Hebraic came later, and therefore played no part in the synoptic record, but I am suspicious that at least one of the features shared by both of the synoptic versions of the parable (namely, the working in of Mark 4.25 in the form of taking money from one slave and giving it to another) is secondary, and it seems pretty certain that the Hebraic version contained nothing like that, if Luomanen's reading of the three slaves and their three outcomes is correct. This leads me to wonder whether the Hebraic version more closely represents the original form of the parable.

So it is not a simple matter of Q > Matthew and Q > Luke not working; it is more a matter of trying to account for all the evidence to hand.

Ben.
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Re: The parable of the talents or pounds/minas.

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Tenorikuma wrote:Thanks for the interesting analysis, Ben. If I have time I'll try to engage with some of your observations.
Thank you.
I'll admit nothing is conclusive about this parable. When I started examining it, I expected Goodacre's theory to hold up. However, the cumulative balance of evidence tilts it the other way for me (Matthean posteriority). Ultimately, I intend to analyze every pericope this way.

For what it's worth, the one that really has me convinced is the Beelzebul controversy. I don't see how you can reconstruct that if Luke used Matthew.
I have already skimmed that article once and hope to give it a closer read soon. (No guarantee I will post anything on it, of course; it all depends on what I find, I guess.)

Ben.
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Re: The parable of the talents or pounds/minas.

Post by MrMacSon »

Bernard Muller wrote:I cannot see why both "Matthew" and "Luke" could not have worked from an original Q parable. And I think, overall, that gMatthew is closer to that Q parable than gLuke.
It seems that MacDonald, Dennis R (2012), in 'Two Shipwrecked Gospels: The Logoi of Jesus & Papias’s 'Exposition of Logia about the Lord' ', proposes that a 'Q+' was Papias’s 'The Logoi of Jesus' ----

See a review by James McGrath here - http://www.bookreviews.org/pdf/8565_9390.pdf

McGrath says MacDonald "argues that Luke knew Papias’s 'Exposition of Logia about the Lord' as well as other extant Gospels"

and McGrath also says, in that review,
  • "In discussions of Q, the phenomenon of alternating priority is a crucial piece of evidence for Matthew and Luke having used an earlier source. Yet, in MacDonald’s proposed explanation, Luke’s knowledge of Q+ is not an alternative to his knowledge of Matthew. Luke knew both, but often sided with Papias against Matthew. And, since Mark is likewise said to have known Q+, instances of inverted priority between later Gospels and Mark can likewise be explained in terms of the use of Mark’s source by the authors of the Gospels of Matthew and Luke."
    http://www.bookreviews.org/pdf/8565_9390.pdf
McGrath reiterates that later -
  • "MacDonald presents a very strong case for the existence of Q; that is, a source that was used by Matthew and Luke and [which] can explain how each can at times preserve earlier versions of their overlapping material [more(?)] than the other. This explanation is not offered as an alternative to Luke’s use of Matthew, but as compatible with it. Because, as MacDonald notes (88), ancient authors tended to work mostly from one source at a time; his explanation agrees with ancient scribal practices more than many proposed explanations of Synoptic interrelations."
    http://www.bookreviews.org/pdf/8565_9390.pdf
MacDonald, Dennis R (2012) ' Two Shipwrecked Gospels: The Logoi of Jesus and Papias’s 'Exposition of Logia about the Lord' '
Society of Biblical Literature: Early Christianity and Its Literature 8
Atlanta: Society of Biblical Literature. Pp. xvi + 711. ISBN 9781589836907
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Charles Wilson
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Re: The parable of the talents or pounds/minas.

Post by Charles Wilson »

Ben C. Smith wrote:
Now, his subjects hated him, and they sent a delegation after him to say, ‘We don’t want this man to rule over us!’ (v. 14)
‘However, these enemies of mine who did not want me to rule over them, bring them here and slaughter them before me!’ (v. 27)

To these two complete verses I would add the introduction to the parable proper: "A nobleman went to a distant country to receive a kingdom for himself, and then return." I would also add one brief line, "after receiving the kingdom," in verse 15. All of these notices are alluding to the story of Archelaus (as described by Josephus in Wars 2.1-6 and Antiquities 17.9-11), as Tenorikuma points out:

Furthermore, nearly all scholars agree that they are a clear reference to Archelaus, who ruled Judea for about ten years...

Ben.
An excellent Post, Ben. For years I believed that the subject of this was Archelaus. Now I'm not so sure. There was another King (and High Priest!) to whom this description might apply - Alexander Jannaeus. What started me on this idea was realizing the phrase, "...bring them here and slaughter them before me". This cannot apply to Archelaus. He was "drafted" by the Suits to rule after the death of Herod. His qualifications were as follows: Son of Herod. In Jerusalem at the time. It appears to be known that there was to be a Coup attempt. Archelaus may or may not have ordered the troops into the Temple area for the Massacre that occurred. He could not have ordered the Worshipers at Passover to appear before him so he could murder them. He certainly was the Party Animal.

The description does apply to Jannaeus. He did go away to receive a Kingdom. It may have been for the purpose of Re-Unifying Greater Israel:

Matthew 15: 24 (RSV):

[24] He answered, "I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

Jannaeus went to battle the Greek General Demetrius Eucerus near Shechem (Near The Temple at Gerizim) and gets his ass handed to him on a platter. He retires to the mountains and is away from Jerusalem for 6 years at least. When he marches back to Jerusalem he has his enemies crucified in front of their wives and children and then slits the throats of the wives and children. "Woe to women who are with child or give suck in those days".

This assignment of meaning may be problematic in other ways but it at least points to something that makes sense of "...bring them here and slaughter them before me!" Having this dialogue placed in the mouth of "Jesus" has always been "iffy" and somewhat dangerous. It may or may not be "Fatigue" but it certainly points to a later editor who had to make it fit but was uncomfortable with the content.

Thanx,

CW
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Re: The parable of the talents or pounds/minas.

Post by Ken Olson »

Ben Smith: I do not think it affects anything you said, but it appears this passage is not extant in the Syriac; it is extant only as one of the Greek fragments published by Migne (PG 24: 685 & 688).
Okay, I'm going to regret not having quit after my first post and rushed into the second. Yes, I see now that your quotation of Luomanen actually quotes some of the Greek--and Syriac Theophany 4.22 is about the fate of the Jews. So that was a screw up un my part. But my larger point was that we're getting only a few comments from Eusebius on what must have been a much larger parable. Eusebius speculates on whether it was not the slave who lived extravagantly rather than the one who hid the talent who deserved punishment. This is in keeping with Eusebius' emphasis on the saving effect of worshipping God properly by living a moral life as taught be Jesus. But he seems not to have appreciated that the money isn't money in Matthew's parable. It's about living life abundantly and doing the most with what God has given you.

But again, my major point is that you really can't do source criticism effectively based on Eusebius' few comments on the parable, and we're not even sure how to take those. Nothing like Goodacre's argument from fatigue can be applied here. Just looking through Eusebius comments he remarks on the one who lived extravagantly wasting his master's money with prostitutes and flute-girls, but when he comes to it again he describes presumably the same one as the one who drank and ate with drunks. So it's really hard to to tell just what was said in the parable. I admit it seems unlikely that there was redistribution of wealth at the end, but there may have been some rough equivalent. I'm also a bit confused about some of Luomanen's and Klijn's comments. Are we to understand that Eusebius was actually reading the text in Hebrew and the Greek is his? If so, it doesn't seem that the Greek tells us much source-critically. And no, i'm not saying I'd necessarily disagree with Malina & Rohrbaugh's order--I'm saying we don't know.

Ben Smith: I will return to the rest (including possible comments on that Context Group paragraph) after I have given more thought to your comments. Thanks.
That sounds ominous. I'm probably going to regret what I said there. But my point is this: M & R interpret the parables in a cultural context they've reconstructed for first century Galillee, which becomes "the Mediterranean culture." All of the Mediterranean? Romans, Greeks, etc.? I suspect they mean something more limited like Semitic-speaking peasant culture but that's still pretty broad. But what they're doing is hypothesizing a particular context and then interpreting (i.e., assigning the meaning to) the parables within the context they've hypothesized. Now it seems to me there are a few unwarranted Marxist assumptions in their socially-scientifically reconstructed abstraction called Mediterranean culture, but leaving those aside--how do we know that's the context for interesting the parables? Luke is very likely a Greek urbanite with a good education including at least the basics of greek philosophy, so why isn't that the context in which to interpret Luke's parables?

So I apologize, Ben, for not having paid as much attention to the details in your post as they deserve. I realize you've put a great deal of thought into this. Maybe I'll get back to this when I have more time.

Best,

Ken
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Re: The parable of the talents or pounds/minas.

Post by Ken Olson »

Tenorikuma wrote: For what it's worth, the one that really has me convinced is the Beelzebul controversy. I don't see how you can reconstruct that if Luke used Matthew.
I had the opposite experience while I was researching F.G. Downing's work on the Mark Q overlap passages. I devote a few pages to the Beelzebul pericope in "Unpicking on the Farrer Theory," in Mark Goodacre & Nicholas Perrin, Questioning Q (London: SPCK, 2004) 126-150.

On Tenorikuma's page https://isthatinthebible.wordpress.com/ ... ic-puzzle/
1. Where Luke and Matthew share material, Luke seems to be more primitive. For example, take Luke 11:20 (“by the finger of God”) versus Matt. 12:28 (“by the spirit of God”). It is more likely that “finger” would be changed to “spirit” rather than the opposite.
2. Matthew shows fatigue from copying Luke. Throughout his Gospel, he always uses the phrase “kingdom of Heaven” in place of “kingdom of God” — except in four places where he is copying another text and forgets to make the change. This is one of those places (Matt. 12:28).
3. The lack of exclusive Mark-Luke material would mean that Luke completely ignored Mark for this one passage.
1. Why? John Nolland, in the second volume of the Word Biblical Commentary on Luke (1993) writes: "Earlier scholarship tended to consider the Lukan form original here, but all the more recent studies that have focused attention on this matter conclude that Luke is the one who has altered the text" (p. 639, citing Rodd, Hammerton-Kelly, George, van Cangh, and Wall). The claim tat Luke is earlier is at least widely contested. Some reasons: (1) Luke never elsewhere premises the ability to work miracles directly on the spirit alone and (2) Luke alone of the synoptics uses the similar anthropomorphisms "hand of God" (Luke 1:66, Acts 4:28, 30; 7:50; 11:21, 13:11) and his "arm" (Luke 1.51, Acts 13:17) (see Nolland, 639).

2. This is not fatigue as Goodacre defines it. It doesn't reflect a change within a pericope in which a writer makes a change earlier and then lapses back to following his source in a way that creates an incongruity in the narrative. "Kingdom of God" and "Kingdom of heaven" are spread out over the gospel, not within a pericope and they don't create a problem in the text because they're synonymous. One serves as well as the other. One could just suppose that Matthew actually meant to use "Kingdom of heaven" each time but failed to carry out his plan. But it doesn't cause a tension in the narrative when Matthew uses Kingdom of God, so it's not what Goodacre is talking about with "fatigue".

3. It is a common practice of ancient authors to follow one source at a time. The 2DH and Farrer Theory are very similar in supposing this. Where Luke's two sources overlap he chooses to follow one and ignore the other. So he's following either Mark or Q/Matthew at one time, not trying to conflate both. I discuss this a good bit in "Unpicking."

There's a much bigger problem for the Matthew Posteriority theory. Why are there so few Mark-Luke agreements against Matthew? Matthew omits a good many of Mark's words and a good many of Luke's. But he gets nearly every word they have in common (i.e., except for two prepositions). How did Matthew accomplish this physically? Did he set his sources side by side and underline all the words they had in common so he would be sure to use them in his version? Is any other ancient writer known to have done this?

Best,

Ken
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Re: The parable of the talents or pounds/minas.

Post by Tenorikuma »

I'd love to read your chapter, Ken, but I don't have access to that book (and my budget for book-buying is fairly meagre). Just to briefly address your points, though they deserve a deeper investigation:

1. Generally speaking, Luke seems to have the more primitive version of parables more often than Matthew. In this instance, I have drawn on the argument of Burkett (2009, p. 21) who writes:

The relevant issue here, however, is Streeter’s argument, which affirms that, without presupposing one theory or the other, we can find double tradition passages in which Luke has a more primitive version than Matthew. For example, Luke probably preserves the more original form of the sign of Jonah (Luke 11:30/Matt 12:40). It is easy to understand why Matthew would have added a reference to Jesus’ resurrection, but less easy to understand why Luke would have removed it had he known it. Likewise, in the Beelzebul debate, Luke’s “finger of God” is probably more original than Matthew’s “Spirit of God” (Matt 12:28/Luke 11:20). It is unlikely that Luke, who elsewhere adds references to the Spirit (Luke 10:21; 11:13), would have substituted a different expression if he had found “Spirit of God” in his source.

Since Burkett holds to the Q hypothesis, he concludes that Luke followed Q and Matthew combined Proto-Mark with Q (p. 103). If there was no Q, this is equivalent to saying Matthew combined Proto-Mark and (Proto-)Luke.

Similarly, I quoted Collins (Hermeneia commentary) who believes Luke's version is more primitive. She states that Matthew seems to have combined Mark's account with one "Luke followed exclusively". In practical terms, if there was no Q, that means Matthew combined Mark with Luke.

To this I will add Dennis R. MacDonald's position:

Although Matthew’s version of the Beelzebul controversy is earlier than Mark’s (see Chapter 4), Luke’s is more primitive even than Matthew’s. It is easier to explain why the anthropomorphism “finger of God” in Luke would have become “the Spirit of God” in Matthew than the other way around (criterion A). (MacDonald 2012, p. 270)

I think the anthropomorphism issue with Luke is a red herring. All the Luke-Acts citations Nolland gives are found either in Luke 1 or in Acts, and if the Klinghardt/MP view is correct, none of these were part of Proto-Luke. Thus, they cannot be used as evidence of proto-Luke's redaction tendencies. Heck, Luke 1:51 is part of the Magnificat. Even if Luke's original author wrote the infancy narrative, he didn't write that part.

On the other hand, it is easy to find instances of Matthew spiritualizing statements that seem more primitive in Luke.

2. Point taken. Still, the fact that Matthew deviates from his normal pattern (surely his preference for the euphemistic "Heaven" is a sign of his Jewish piety) tilts slightly in the direction of Matthean posteriority.

3. This is a very interesting point. Looking briefly at my colour-coding of other Triple Tradition passages, Luke-Mark agreements against Matthew are usually about as common as Matthew-Mark agreements. (So the aversion against combining two sources is not going to be a serious objection. To say nothing of the Diatessaron, Pentateuch, etc.) I'm not sure it's a problem here; Matthew has used Mark preferentially over Luke for the preaching bits, and that would mostly account for the lack of Mark-Luke overlap. Still, you have me a little bit bothered, and I will consider it again. Edit: Now that I look more closely, there is some Luke-Mark agreement against Matthew: "blasphemes against" (12:10) and the wording of Jesus mother and brothers seeking him, which Luke moved to chapter 8. There is no Luke-Matthew agreement here, which is natural if Matthew copied Luke (he didn't see it in chapter 11 where Luke's Beelzebul story is located) and less likely if Luke copied Matthew (Matthew's revisions of Mark are in plain view there).

I would also note that if Luke is copying Matthew's version of the Beelzebul controversy, then he is combining two separate versions from Matthew — the one in chapter 9 and the one in chapter 12. It seems more plausible to me that Matthew is the one who has doubled it.

As for copying and writing techniques in general, Garrow's research on differing habits between scroll and codex users may be of help. I don't know if that is brought up in your essay.
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Ben C. Smith
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Re: The parable of the talents or pounds/minas.

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Ken Olson wrote:
Ben Smith: I do not think it affects anything you said, but it appears this passage is not extant in the Syriac; it is extant only as one of the Greek fragments published by Migne (PG 24: 685 & 688).
Okay, I'm going to regret not having quit after my first post and rushed into the second. Yes, I see now that your quotation of Luomanen actually quotes some of the Greek--and Syriac Theophany 4.22 is about the fate of the Jews.
Just for reference, here is the Greek: Ἐπεὶ δὲ τὸ εἰς ἡμᾶς ἧκον Ἑβραϊκοῖς χαρακτῆρσιν εὐαγγέλιον τὴν ἀπειλὴν οὐ κατὰ τοῦ ἀποκρύψαντος ἐπῆγεν, ἀλλὰ κατὰ τοῦ ἀσώτως ἐζηκότος – τρεῖς γὰρ δούλους περιεῖχε, τὸν μὲν καταφαγόντα τὴν ὕπαρξιν τοῦ δεσπότου μετὰ πορνῶν καὶ αὐλητρίδων, τὸν δὲ πολλαπλασιάσαντα τὴν ἐργασίαν, τὸν δὲ κατακρύψαντα τὸ τάλαντον· εἶτα τὸν μὲν ἀποδεχθῆναι, τὸν δὲ μεμφθῆναι μόνον, τὸν δὲ συγκλεισθῆναι δεσμωτηρίῳ – ἐφίστημι, μήποτε κατὰ τὸν Ματθαῖον μετὰ τὴν συμπλήρωσιν τοῦ λόγου τοῦ κατὰ τοῦ μηδὲν ἐργασαμένου ἡ ἑξῆς ἐπιλεγομένη ἀπειλὴ οὐ περὶ αὐτοῦ, ἀλλὰ περὶ τοῦ προτέρου κατ' ἐπανάληψιν λέλεκται, τοῦ ἐσθίοντος καὶ πίνοντος μετὰ τῶν μεθυόντων.
But my larger point was that we're getting only a few comments from Eusebius on what must have been a much larger parable.
Yes, I agree with this.
But again, my major point is that you really can't do source criticism effectively based on Eusebius' few comments on the parable, and we're not even sure how to take those. Nothing like Goodacre's argument from fatigue can be applied here. Just looking through Eusebius comments he remarks on the one who lived extravagantly wasting his master's money with prostitutes and flute-girls, but when he comes to it again he describes presumably the same one as the one who drank and ate with drunks. So it's really hard to to tell just what was said in the parable. I admit it seems unlikely that there was redistribution of wealth at the end....
While I agree that all of this is tenuous, and it is an experiment in many ways, what piqued my interest from the beginning is how Luke gets into a bit of trouble when he expands the parable to 10 servants, while both Matthew and Luke stumble a bit (in different ways) when they have the master redistribute the money as per Mark 4.25, and it looks like this Hebraic parable seems to avoid both pitfalls (by probably having only three servants: τρεῖς γὰρ δούλους περιεῖχε; and by almost certainly lacking any redistribution of wealth, if Luomanen's reconstruction of the three outcomes is correct). Is it possible that this parable came later than the synoptics and perhaps even added in its own fresh varieties of editorial fatigue compared to them? Of course; it is possible. There are unknowns aplenty, and I am not suggesting overthrowing entire theories, whether 2 Source or Farrer or Greisbach or what have you, on the basis of one parable. I am really just exploring what might happen when more than just the synoptic three (and occasionally John) are brought into the mix; for I do feel that students and scholars of the synoptic problem often tend to really look only at the synoptic three and treat all other texts as afterthoughts.
Ben Smith: I will return to the rest (including possible comments on that Context Group paragraph) after I have given more thought to your comments. Thanks.
That sounds ominous. I'm probably going to regret what I said there.
Oh, I doubt that; I think the main thing is that you seem to be writing as if I (or Luomanen, actually) brought in Malina and Rohrbaugh to say something about the Matthean or Lucan parables; to wit:
But my point is this: M & R interpret the parables in a cultural context they've reconstructed for first century Galillee, which becomes "the Mediterranean culture." All of the Mediterranean? Romans, Greeks, etc.? I suspect they mean something more limited like Semitic-speaking peasant culture but that's still pretty broad. But what they're doing is hypothesizing a particular context and then interpreting (i.e., assigning the meaning to) the parables within the context they've hypothesized. Now it seems to me there are a few unwarranted Marxist assumptions in their socially-scientifically reconstructed abstraction called Mediterranean culture, but leaving those aside--how do we know that's the context for interesting the parables? Luke is very likely a Greek urbanite with a good education including at least the basics of greek philosophy, so why isn't that the context in which to interpret Luke's parables?
But the only reason they got mentioned at all was to comment on the Hebraic parable and the possible order of the outcomes. Nothing more. I have actually profoundly disagreed with Malina and Rohrbaugh on many occasions for many of the reasons you adduce above. Specifically, IIRC, they actually try to interpret the parable of the pounds or talents itself, as we find it in the synoptics, as an indictment of the master and a vindication of peasant anticapitalistic values! I cannot follow that. Yet, in the case of the Hebraic parable, I think that such a scenario may be most likely; the idea of burying entrusted money to keep it from being stolen (a far more common threat in antiquity than in modern developed countries with banks and insurance) is found, for example, in the Babylonian Talmud, Tractate Baba Mezi'a 42a:

Mishnah.
If a man deposited money with his neighbour, who bound it up and slung it over his shoulder [or] entrusted it to his minor son or daughter and locked [the door] before them, but not properly, he is liable, because he did not guard [it] in the manner of bailees. but if he guarded it in the manner of bailees, he is exempt.

Gemara.
As for all, it is well, since indeed he did not guard it in the manner of bailees: but if he bound it up and slung it over his shoulder — what else should he have done? — Said Raba in R. Isaac's name: Scripture saith, and thou shalt bind up the money in thine hand — even if bound up, it should be in thy hand.
R. Isaac also said: One's money should always be ready to hand, for it is written, and thou shalt bind up the money in thy hand.
R. Isaac also said: One should always divide his wealth into three parts: [investing] a third in land, a third in merchandise, and [keeping] a third ready to hand.
R. Isaac also said: A blessing is found only in what is hidden from the eye, for it is written, The Lord shall command the blessing upon thee in thy hidden things. The School of R. Ishmael taught: A blessing comes only to that over which the eye has no power, for it is said, The Lord shall command the blessing upon thee in thy hidden things.
Our Rabbis taught: When one goes to measure [the corn in] his granary, he should pray, 'May it be Thy will, O Lord our God, to send a blessing upon the work of our hands.' Having started to measure, he prays, 'Blessed is He who sendeth a blessing on this pile.' But if he measured and then prayed, it is a vain prayer, because a blessing is not found in that which is [already] weighed, measured, or counted, but only in that which is hidden from the eye, for it is said, The Lord shall command the blessing upon thee in thy hidden things.
Samuel said: Money can only be guarded [by placing it] in the earth. Said Raba: Yet Samuel admits that on Sabbath eve at twilight the Rabbis did not put one to that trouble. Yet if he tarried after the conclusion of the Sabbath long enough to bury it [the money] but omitted to do so, he is responsible [if it is stolen]. But if he [the depositor] was a scholar, he [the bailee] might have thought, He may require the money for habdalah. But nowadays that there are money-diviners, it can be properly guarded only [by placing it] under the roof beams. But nowadays that there are house breakers, it can be guarded only [within the void spaces] between bricks. Raba said: Yet Samuel admits [that it may be] hidden] in the wall. But nowadays that there are rappers, It can be guarded only in the handbreadth nearest to the earth or to the uppermost beams.

I know this deals with neighbors entrusting wealth to neighbors and not with masters entrusting it to slaves, but compare the attitude ensconced in Thomas 64: "Businessmen and merchants will not enter the places of my father." And compare Josephus, Antiquities 4.8.38 §285-288 (summarizing the law of Moses):

[285] Let him that has received any thing in trust for another, take care to keep it as a sacred and divine thing; and let no one invent any contrivance whereby to deprive him that hath intrusted it with him of the same, and this whether he be a man or a woman; no, not although he or she were to gain an immense sum of gold, and this where he cannot be convicted of it by any body; [286] for it is fit that a man's own conscience, which knows what he hath, should in all cases oblige him to do well. Let this conscience be his witness, and make him always act so as may procure him commendation from others; but let him chiefly have regard to God, from whom no wicked man can lie concealed: [287] but if he in whom the trust was reposed, without any deceit of his own, lose what he was intrusted withal, let him come before the seven judges, and swear by God that nothing hath been lost willingly, or with a wicked intention, and that he hath not made use of any part thereof, and so let him depart without blame; but if he hath made use of the least part of what was committed to him, and it be lost, let him be condemned to repay all that he had received. [288] After the same manner as in these trusts it is to be, if any one defraud those that undergo bodily labor for him. And let it be always remembered, that we are not to defraud a poor man of his wages, as being sensible that God has allotted these wages to him instead of land and other possessions; nay, this payment is not at all to be delayed, but to be made that very day, since God is not willing to deprive the laborer of the immediate use of what he hath labored for.

Throw in the prohibitions against charging interest to one's own countrymen in Exodus 22.25; Leviticus 25.35-37; and Deuteronomy 23.19-20, and I can easily envision the parable accepting the one who buried the money (for safekeeping). That was the only reason the Context Group got brought in.

As I mentioned in the OP, Luomanen actually presents four arguments for the Hebraic parable postdating the synoptics, which I may post and respond to at some point; but one of his arguments is the kind that your observations about Galilean peasants not comprising the entirety of Mediterranean culture already answers; in fact, I have a partial response already written up, and your comments are pretty similar in nature.
So I apologize, Ben, for not having paid as much attention to the details in your post as they deserve. I realize you've put a great deal of thought into this. Maybe I'll get back to this when I have more time, more knowledge of the synoptic problem, more intelligence, and maybe even a more beautiful wife ;)
No problem at all! I really appreciate the input. I have gathered both that (as I suspected out loud in the OP) it is hard to commit to a specific hypothesis when there are so many variables that have to fall in the right direction and that there are some specific points I made that I need to shore up. So thanks. And best wishes on whatever it is you plan to do (?) about your wife....

Ben.
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