to Giuseppe,
2) Lk 16:17 "And it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one tittle of the law to fail." NKJV
gMarcion "But it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away, ... than one tittle of my [Jesus] words to fail."
http://www.gnosis.org/library/marcion/Gospel4.html
Comment by Ben C. Smith: "Marcion apparently has "one tittle of my (Jesus') words", yet a "tittle" (Greek κεραία) is a written mark, a stroke or a serif on certain letters. Such a term makes far more sense when applied to the law, which had been written for centuries, than it does applied to Jesus' own (as yet unwritten) words while he is still speaking them."
But we know that Marcion was selling his Gospel as New Testament replacing entirely all the previous scriptures. The use of 'tittle' fits well for that goal: the ''scriptures'' of Jesus (really: words) are in antithesis with the old (physical) scriptures.
But when Jesus allegedly spoke these words, there was no scriptures of Jesus yet. Actually, Jesus is never said to have written anything.
A similar saying is in gMatthew 5:18, and therefore would be part of Q; and in it, the tittle is about the Law, as it is in Lk 16:17. So "Luke", most likely, followed the Q saying and did not copy on gMarcion.
Marcionite apocalypticism cannot fail by definition: if the god of Jesus isn't the creator of this world, then the fate of this world is indifferent for him (after the crucifixion). Therefore the prophecy of the marcionite Jesus is fully fulfilled: at least until the death of Jesus (his true and only goal in this world), 'the heaven and the earth will not pass away.' A contradiction arises when the prophecy is referred to parusia on this world: that prophecy becomes clearly failed in the eyes of the same first proponents of it, but they put it on Jesus to make him more a Jewish prophet (claiming justice in this world within short time) and so virtually an anti-marcionite prophet.
Sure, Marcion rephrased that passage so his apocalyptic message cannot fail because of elapsed time.
But by 130 AD, the apocalyptic alleged words of Jesus (according to Lk 21:32) had failed. However when gLuke was written (around 85-90 AD), that alleged prophecy (also in gMark and gMatthew) had not failed yet.
My question is: if gLuke had been written after gMarcion, why would "Luke" put forward a Jesus' failed prophecy?
Another question: Why would "Luke" not follow gMarcion in that regard, avoiding Jesus making a false prophecy?
Furthermore, "Luke" also copied from gMark (9:1) the following verse:
9:27
"But I tell you of a truth, there be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the kingdom of God." KJV
Note: the same verse also appears in Mt 16:28, but is not reported to exist in gMarcion.
4) Lk 5:33 "And they said unto him, Why do the disciples of John fast often, and make prayers, and likewise the disciples of the Pharisees; but thine eat and drink?"
Tertullian's 'Against Marcion', IV, 11: "Whence, too, does John come upon the scene? Christ, suddenly; and just as suddenly, John! After this fashion occur all things in Marcion's system."
The antithesis is evident behind the common rapid appearance of both John and Jesus: although both make a short 'Toccata and Fugue' on Earth, Jesus is far superior to John, the latter being the last prophet of Demiurge and therefore no in need of presentation.
Does not work on literature. A new character is very unlikely to be first presented abruptly with no detail on who he is.
More, in gMarcion, further in the text, John is identified with many details (Lk 7:18-28). So he was of great importance for Marcion.
Note: According to Epiphanius, Marcion changed
"And blessed is he who takes no offense at me." by
"And blessed is John
who takes no offense at me."
Cordially, Bernard