Michael BG wrote:I assumed you would understand that Abba is translated into Father in Greek –
Mk 8:38, 10:40, 11:25, 11:26, 13:32
Of course. But I thought that it was the Marcan habit we were discussing, and I thought the unusualness was what we were discussing. Back translating "father" into Aramaic is unusual; Mark does it only once.
I am no longer sure what you are tracking.
Mark 1:3 and 11:9 are not Jesus speaking!
Right. I thought we were tracking Marcan usage.
So we have Jesus using Abba / Father for God six times in Mark, but never referring to God as Lord unless quoting the Old Testament
And Mark 14.62 is a reference to the Old Testament. It is a combination of Psalm 110.1 and Daniel 7.13.
This is how far apart we are: my original list of instances of "Lord" gave 8, but my "pattern" list gave only 7: Lord-Lord-Lord-Lord-Lord-Lord-Lord-Power, precisely because I removed Mark 13.20, since it was
not an apparent reference or allusion to the Hebrew scriptures!
No we have Father, Father, Father, Father, Father, Father, Power when not quoting a correct quote from the OT.
Mark 14.62 is a reference to Psalm 110.1 and Daniel 7.13.
Again, I have completely lost track of your argument.
Your option B is possible especially if the author is reading back into Jesus’ trial the charges made against Christians in his day. However this seems to weaken your idea regarding the linkage between this passage and Sanhedrin 7.6.
Not from the priestly point of view. Reporting that someone else called something blasphemy is not the same as reporting that you agree with the charge.
Ben.