Bernard Muller wrote:to spin,
Zec 4:9: "The hands of Zerub'babel have laid the foundation of this house; his hands shall also complete it. Then you will know that the LORD of hosts has sent me to you."
Still beating yourself because you can't get Zerubbabel into Zech 6.
Still nothing. As you can't put Zerubbabel into the discourse of Zech 6, you don't get anywhere. There is a scholarly body of work that deals with the disappearance of Zerubbabel. You're trying to reinvent the wheel because of your prior commitments. Enjoy.
When Zechariah wrote his book, Zerubbabel was still alive because Zechariah predicted that Zerubbabel would complete the temple. So No Zerubbabel in Zech 6 is irrelevant. He had to be in Jerusalem when Jeshua (allegedly) received the crowns. Period.
Period, indeed. You are still pretending to try to do history with the material. Zechariah scrubbed Zerubbabel from the scene, leaving only Yeshua being crowned with two crowns. Don't you understand this? Zechariah leaves the Jewish tradition with the notion of Yeshua as ruler.
Bernard Muller wrote:I guess there were only four kings in the Persian empire
Ok, I do not think that "Daniel" would propose a scheme in Da 9:24-27 which would NOT bring us to 167 BC, maybe with some inaccuracy of let's say + - 10 years which is, I think, very generous. If totally off target, that interval between Cyrus' first year and Antiochus IV's last years, would make the book highly untrustable, and against what "Daniel" would want.
So if that interval was 490 years, that would push back the decree of Cyrus to around 657 BC, 118 years before 539 BC, the historical date. Since "Daniel" seemed very much aware of the history between Alexander the Great and Antichus IV, likely including the relative dating, that would leave a lot of years for many Persian kings after Darius I.
Again, you are trying to do history, when the text doesn't allow you to do so, except in the period preceding the writing. You are not going to get accuracy until then, so arguing about accuracy is a waste of time. The text is inaccurate frequently enough to prevent you from treating it as "ultra-accurate".
Bernard Muller wrote:Furthermore, I think that Jews would know when their dear 2nd temple was built.
Knew more than vaguely??
Bernard Muller wrote:Something so important would have been recorded and passed from generation to generation.
That doesn't derive from anything from the past. You are just making an assertion.
Bernard Muller wrote:More so when between the rebuilding of the temple and the times of Antiochus IV, the situation in Israel was rather stable, with a whole succession of high priests.
You haven't read F.M. Cross's analysis of the priestly list in the post-"exilic" period and he points out the list should be quite a bit longer, so you are speaking without any data to support you again. I once did an analysis of the evolution of the high priestly genealogy from Aaron to Seraiah and found that it got larger for the same time period as time progressed. It ain't accurate and it is probably partially made up. The relative chronology from my analysis of the evolution of the high priestly list goes:
1. 1 Esdras 8:1-2
2. Ezra 7:1-5
3. 2 Esdras 1:1-2
4. 1 Chr 6:3-15.
Watch the list grow. It's semi-fictional. Josephus offers a section of the list in AJ 10.152-153. It's also longer than the related section in 1 Chr 6:9-15.
But no, the situation in Israel was not rather stable, with an evolving tradition of high priests.
Noteworthy in passing is the fact that the traditions imply that Ezra was the uncle of Yeshua, given that Ezra is the son of Seraiah son of Azariah (Ezra 7:1). Yehozedek is also son of Azariah (1 Chr 6:14) and Yehozedek was father of Yeshua.
Bernard Muller wrote:Yes, I said Ben Sira knew about Nehemiah. Josephus did too, just not the canonical book. He evinces something called the Nehemiah Memoir.
Well, 'Nehemiah' starts as such:
"The words of Nehemiah the son of Hachaliah. And it came to pass in the month Chisleu, in the twentieth year, as I was in Shushan the palace,
That Hanani, one of my brethren, came, he and certain men of Judah; and I asked them concerning the Jews that had escaped, which were left of the captivity, and concerning Jerusalem."
That's certainly looks like a Memoir written by Nehemiah himself. I don't have any problem with Ben Sira calling 'Nehemiah' Memoir of Nehemiah.
Just read up about the evolution of the book of Nehemiah.
Bernard Muller wrote:That Daniel wrongly calls Belshazzar a king? Oh, I see. You have to downplay the blunder, because you are trying to sell the story that Daniel's seventy weeks is ultra-accurate. Hence..
It is not so wrong to have "Daniel" to call Belshazzar a king:
A reminder: From the The verse account of Nabonidus
http://www.livius.org/sources/content/a ... bonidus/?:
"when the third year was about to begin- he [Nabonidus] entrusted the army to his oldest son, his first born, the troops in the country he ordered under his command. He let everything go, entrusted the kingship to him."
According to that, "Belshazzar" was 99% king. So the error is 1%.
Stop bullshitting, Bernard. You know he was never king. The writers of Daniel part 2 didn't get it as historical information. They got it from Dan 5:1-2, where he is the son of Nebuchadnezzar. Great historical source.
Bernard Muller wrote:Did the Nehemiah Memoir mention Artaxerxes? Josephus, who uses it (not the canonical text), puts Nehemiah in the reign of a Xerxes (11.159).
I do not think Josephus said he got his info on Nehemiah from any memoir.
I'm glad you can say that with a straight face.
Bernard Muller wrote:And 'Nehemiah' and 2 Esdra have Nehemiah operating under Artarxerxes. Josephus seems to be in the minority here.
We have no idea whether Daniel knew either Nehemiah or the Vorlage to 1 Esdras. We don't know when 1 Esdras was written, but probably around the time of Ben Sira or later. It cannot be shown to be relevant in any sense here. You have better hope for Nehemiah, but you cannot know whether the text originally mentioned Artaxerxes or not. Josephus doesn't allow you to assume it.
Bernard Muller wrote:I've already said a number of times that the text becomes more accurate the closer it comes to the time period under consideration.
Actually, the text becomes very accurate and detailed as soon as Alexander the Great is implied (at Dan 11:3) despite the fact that history is presented as a prophecy. And that's way beyond the life span of the author of Daniel part 2. I explained that at
http://historical-jesus.info/danielx.html.
You said nothing here that I hadn't already said other than "actually". In my last post I dealt with this accuracy issue at some length. All you are doing here is ignoring the blunder of the four kings and looking to the later material which we both know is more accurate, and even more accurate in its concentration of data approaching the time of writing.
Bernard Muller wrote:you can't just assert it
I can assert it because these seventy sevens brings me to the right year.
Errors can get you places. Doesn't justify the error. You just thank your luck. Besides, the fact that your trick got you in the ballpark doesn't mean that it is what Dan 9:25-27 was dealing with. That's just another assumption. The reason you are trying so hard to insinuate Zerubbabel into Zechariah 6 is because Yeshua is such a good candidate for the prince the anointed.
Bernard Muller wrote:They just count the three letters שבע, so you do fancy them writing all this down like your spreadsheet, but instead of numerals, they wrote letters, so what, you imagine that they wrote out a table like yours with words instead of numbers?? It wouldn't fit on the widest scroll from the DSS. Perhaps they wrote it out as a (single column) list, maybe? No? Perhaps someone counted the numbers out aloud and another marked each seven... that wouldn't work, would it? They are pronounced differently, having different vowels. You can't imagine why your theory looks silly to some others.
OK, I already explained you do not have to use a spreadsheet. Just a patch of sand will do for a few annotations. It is not difficult to figure that out. There is nothing silly when a scheme brings you to the exact and correct year.
A lot of theories, even if at the start they look silly for some, can prove to be right when they bring correct & verifiable results. And that's exactly what I achieved. That's the scientific way.
You were caught out with the numerals and stuck with words. Now you've changed your discourse to "a few annotations." There is nothing scientific in your approach.
Bernard Muller wrote:
Bernard Muller wrote: When it is reached, I look at the corresponding number of years (in that case 372), and I subtract it from the year of Cyrus' decree and I get 167 BC.
In this situation no-one is interested in what you did. It is what they did that matters and you don't know. You assert a wacky approach that you claim they must have used because, well, they were ultra-accurate.
Why would no-one be interested with success? Except if one holds on to some theory with more than a century error.
There is no success here. You got a starting date then jimmied a change in duration from the 490 years that one would usually understand from Dan 9:25-27 so as not to overshoot and then you reinterpreted 9:25-27 to reflect the date you acquired from your number game. No sign of success, sorry.
Bernard Muller wrote:Bernard Muller wrote:I do not think "Daniel" was consistent with his week(s): שבעים שבע . In 10:2 & 3, he used the form שבעים for the plural of weeks (with weeks really meaning weeks).
Not relevant here: it doesn't concern a vision. Words have a life to be discerned within the vision, not without.
I do not see your point here.
You are introducing a significance of a word outside vision related text. It's usage there has no necessary impact on usage within vision related material.
Bernard Muller wrote:But if you want to claim a real week, then you only have sixty-nine sevens mentioned in the vision, plus a week. Where is the seventieth? Do you really want to try to have it both ways??
No, because the seventieth is already reached at Daniel 9:26a
"Now after the sixty-two weeks ..." So now we are in the seventieth weeks/sevens.
No, we are in the seventieth week in 9:27a. That's when the writers state the 70th week. There are seven weeks plus sixty-two weeks in 9:25, then the sixty-two weeks is referred to in 9:26. Where is the seventieth week
referred to? 9:27 "He shall make a strong covenant with many (for) a week."
Bernard Muller wrote:And then we have within it "... an anointed one will be cut off and have nothing.
As for the city and the sanctuary, the people of the coming prince will destroy them.
But his end will come speedily like a flood.
Until the end of the war that has been decreed there will be destruction.//
Wait for it... the seventieth week,wait... here it is:
Bernard Muller wrote://He will confirm a covenant with many for one week.
But in the middle of that week he will bring sacrifices and offerings to a halt." (Daniel 9:26-27 NET Bible)
You didn't look at the Hebrew references I gave you a link for. You are dependent on the English translation with "midst" and it is leading you astray.
Half a week sacrifices will cease. The Greek: εν τω ημισει της εβδομαδος, "in/through half the week". ημισος gives us the prefix "hemi-", as in "hemisphere".
Bernard Muller wrote:One more week for you (= seven years) would be after your seventy weeks of years.
Hmm, seventy-one weeks! That does not fit Daniel's schema... remembering that the topic was only seventy weeks! It's a straw man, Bernard.
Bernard Muller wrote:"And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, ..." (Dan 9:27 RSV)
It is very clear.
No it is not. The word for "midst" in Hebrew principally means "half": press the number above the word "middle" here and scroll down to the BDB Hebrew entry. the Tamid ceased half a week and stayed ceased "until the decreed end is poured out upon the desolator." Working from 168/7 when the burnt offering was stopped until Antiochus received his end, we have, umm, well, let's see, gosh, could it be?, ahh, three and a half years.
Yes, but in some cases it indicates "midst" or "middle" or "part", as in Ex 27:5 [with a preposition], 2 Sa 10:4 [half], Psa 102:24 [not present], Isa 44:16,19 [half, half], Jer 17:11 [with a preposition], Zec 14:8 [half, half].
Sadly none of these help your cause. Some indicate half and are often translated as such. Two others are with prepositions that require the translator to improvise, but note that there is no preposition in Dan 9:27 before חצי.
Bernard Muller wrote:Could not find the BDB entry, but looking at the different translations on Bible Hub, I find you interpretation to be in a small minority. And the LXX has "in the midst of the week ..." ("in" is in the Greek).
No, it does not. See above. Your old translation of the Greek tends to lean towards mimicking the KJV.
Bernard Muller wrote:The text says that it was a week. When was that week for the covenant with the many? Or had he made a covenant back in 171 BCE when he appointed Menelaus because of a better offer?
The textual context says that is Antiochus IV confirming the covenant.
The covenant with Menelaus was in 171. See 2 Macc 4:23-29.
Bernard Muller wrote:Well, you have got thirty-seven of them, haven't you?
No I have seventy of "sevens", that is all occurrences of שבע (seven).
You have thirty-three seventies and thirty-seven sevens. That's not seventy sevens. You are still enamored with Roman numerals and you are just manipulating the material and pretending it's ok.
Bernard Muller wrote:You are in no position to make any claim about what the text says or does not say, only what the translator says it might have said. On what grounds do you say what is not the text?
"For" (as in
"... for half a week ...) is not in the Hebrew text, nor in the Greek of the LXX.
It is not in the Hebrew of "(for) a time, times and half a time" or "(for) 2300 evenings and mornings". They didn't do durations the same way as English.
Bernard Muller wrote:The JPS translation is in a small minority.
It is representing the Hebrew better. Duration, as I have said, in Hebrew is indicated without preposition. We need one in English. You are arguing here form ignorance. Almost every time you depend on a translated word for your argument it is wrong.
Bernard Muller wrote:In looking at 9:27 I noticed this:
He will make a binding covenant with many for one week,
and for half of the week he will suspend both the sacrifice and grain offerings.(ISV)
Do you see how the duration in the first clause is at the end and in the second at the beginning? This is a similar structure to the one seen in 9:25. It shows you that the christianizing approach of separating the second duration from the following doesn't reflect Hebrew discourse. (The difference that the second duration is part of the first doesn't change the discourse structure.)
I repeat, there is no "for" in the Hebrew or the Greek.
And it is an utterly terrible argument, which you should remove from your playbook, because it just shows so well in such cases you don't know what you are talking about.
You must not make arguments based on languages you haven''t got a clue about. This is the case for most of your argument down to the seventy, umm, well 37 sevens and 33 seventies. But they are all sevens, you think with your modern understanding of numbers.