davidmartin wrote: ↑Thu Sep 10, 2020 5:30 pmnow that's the interesting questionThere were/are "righteous Gentiles" and requirements for Gentiles in Judaism, but it doesn't necessarily follow that Jesus had a "Pauline style view on gentile converts." Paul said he did not receive his gospel to the Gentiles "from any man, not was I taught it" (Gal. 1:12), but by a revelation he says he received from the heavenly Jesus. And if the human Jesus had taught the same gospel to the Gentiles that Paul did, Paul would have been able to say that he received it from other people who had learned about it from the human Jesus, right?
when Paul says 'his gospel' to me that means the whole Paul package as we see it in his letters and it covers a lot of ground
but you can take specific items of this and look at them separately as whether they might have predated his revelation or been part of it
its possible to go back to the gospels to try and look for those (although most people say they were written after Paul's letters... i think that's still worthwhile and they've got their own tradition)
The gospels do contain some information so if we think these go back to Jesus, not everything Paul taught was unknown before
i recon substantial pieces of what he taught were known before and he presented them in new ways as part of his revelation
I think all gospels were written after Paul, but I'm open to the possibility that some of them contain sayings and doings of Jesus that pre-date Paul. And in what I regard as the earliest gospels (Mark, Matthew and Luke), Jesus is pro-Jewish Torah observance and (with few exceptions) does not minister to Gentiles or teach his followers to minister to Gentiles, as noted here:
When Jesus began His ministry, it was only to the people of Israel. When He sent out the apostles on their first evangelistic mission, He ordered them, “Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not; but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel” (Matt. 10:5-6). This does not mean that He ignored individual Gentiles, because He did minister to a few (Matt. 8:5-13; 15:21-28), but His major emphasis was on Israel.
https://www.biblegateway.com/resources/ ... es-15-8-13
But Paul's "major emphasis" was on Gentiles, right?