NT/apocrypha and its knowledge of the Gospels

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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DCHindley
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Re: NT/apocrypha and its knowledge of the Gospels

Post by DCHindley »

Ulan wrote:
andrewcriddle wrote:There may be a case that Paul knew rather little about the life of Jesus.

However the fact that most of what he tells us about the historical Jesus is mentioned once only, makes it likely on statistical grounds that he knew a lot more than occurs in his surviving letters.
I must admit that the logic behind this statement evades me. What are those statistics based on? Aren't we in outlier territory here?
andrewcriddle wrote:If only half of Paul's letters had survived we would have substantially less information about Paul's beliefs about the life of Jesus. If we had many more letters we would probably know substantially more about Paul's understanding of the historical Jesus.
Sure. And if 10% of the text in his letters is from interpolations, he may have known even less or nothing. I don't say this because I think it is so, I just think musings like these are rather ungrounded.

Nevertheless, if you think Paul knew quite a bit more of the life of Jesus, why do you personally think he didn't want to talk about it in his letters?
It seems to me that Andrew is saying that we don't have a big enough sample of Pauline writings to know for sure whether he knew more about a human Jesus. Statistically, we are talking about sample size. If Paul was writing letters all the time, and he probably was (for whatever his business was, for correspondence with his communities, for friendly exchanges with his network of contacts), we may have a skewed sample. The problem with small samples is that we can get only the most general idea of the writer's POV about various subjects. How big a sample is enough? There is a formula for determining this minimum sample size, but you have to have a pretty good idea of his entire lifetime output of letters to calculate it.
http://www.raosoft.com/samplesize.html

What "Paul" does seem to know is that Jesus was anointed (i.e., was a "Christ") to die and be resurrected to save people. I don't think that he cared that much about Jesus as a person, although he was concerned to say he was born like any human and was of Judean royal extraction.

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Re: NT/apocrypha and its knowledge of the Gospels

Post by GakuseiDon »

gmx wrote:A frequently cited problem with the NT is the absence of references within the Paulina to the details of Jesus' life as presented in the Gospels. One explanation is that the Pauline epistles were composed before the invention/fabrication of the synoptic narrative expansion. My question is whether this explanation holds for the deutero-Pauline and pastoral epistles, the Petrine and Johanine epistles, and the near-contemporaneous apocrypha (Clement et al)? If anyone can point me in the way of scholarly research of the above, or wants to venture their own opinion, that would be greatly appreciated.
My own personal and non-scholarly opinion: we don't know why Paul and others gave few historical details, but there are plenty of examples going into the Second Century CE where this occurs. And the thing to keep in mind is that these writers didn't just give few details about Jesus, but also few historical details about anything. To the extent that it is very difficult to understand when letters were written, other than in wide date ranges. See the main page of Peter Kirby's "Early Christian Writings" website, and check the date ranges listed.

I've given some quotes from my review of Doherty's "Jesus: Neither God Nor Man" below on this. But it simply seems to be how they wrote in those times. Why? I suggest culture and cost. On costs: Imagine that emails cost $10 a word -- how would this affect the content? What would you put in and leave out?

Anyway, snippets of my view on this from my review of JNGNM below from here: http://members.optusnet.com.au/gakuseid ... view2.html

Doherty responded to my review here: http://www.jesuspuzzle.humanists.net/Cr ... nJNGNM.htm
_____________________________________________________

2.1 Silence in early Christian Writings

When reading through the epistles generally attributed to Paul, one recognises something quite odd: they contain few – if any – references to the teachings or actions of a historical Jesus. Looking more broadly at the other epistles in the New Testament, we see the same pattern: details representing Jesus as a person living in some time or place appear almost non-existent.

Broadening our scope to the Second Century apologists and other texts, we see the same pattern continuing. Doherty examines these First and Second Century writers and concludes that they are silent about a historical Jesus for good reason: there was no historical Jesus Christ at the core of those authors' Christianity.

This is the end of Doherty's analysis. But is this the end of the story?

If we continue on with our examination of early literature, we begin to see that it is in fact not only silent about a historical Jesus, but that it contains few historical details about anything. Many epistles are hard to date for this reason, and we have to rely on hints within the text – usually names or events that we can date via other texts – to determine a possible date of origination, and even then it is often a date range extending over decades. (See the date ranges given on the excellent earlychristianwritings website.)
Why did they write in such a fashion? It certainly isn't what we would expect. But what Doherty doesn't note in JNGNM is that there are writers who, while undoubtedly believing in a historical Jesus, nevertheless wrote in the same fashion.

Silence in the Second Century Apologists

In JNGNM, Doherty examines the writings of Second Century apologists, and concludes:
  • As one can see by this survey, if one leaves aside Justin Martyr there is a silence in the 2nd Century apologists on the subject of the historical Jesus which is virtually equal of that found in the 1st century epistle writers. (Page 485)
Doherty describes this lack of appeal to a human Jesus in Second Century apologetic writings as a situation that is 'too bizarre' (page 487). He is correct that it is not what we would expect. With a few exceptions -- Justin Martyr being the most notable one -- the Second Century apologists appear to have little interest in the historical Jesus. (And in fact, we are lucky to have even Justin Martyr's writings. Had not a Byzantine scribe copied out some of Justin's letters in the 14th Century CE, we would have little more than a scattering of quotations today, and all our extant Second Century apologists would have been silent about a historical Jesus.)

Doherty and I have already crossed swords on the topic of the silence of Second Century apologists in 2005. I won't cover the same material here, so I invite interested readers to read my articles and Doherty's responses for background information before continuing.

Doherty's conclusion that Second Century apologists like Tatian, Theophilus, Athenagoras, Minucius Felix and even Justin Martyr (whom Doherty claims subscribed to a non-historical Jesus early in his Christian life) were not believers in a historical Jesus is quite fantastic. Even scholars who lean towards mythicism do not hold this view. G.A. Wells notes that, for all their unexpected silences, they nevertheless betrayed an acquaintance with the Jesus of the New Testament [1]. Richard Carrier notes that many of the Second Century apologists who were silent on the Gospel Jesus appear to be familiar with one or more of the books of the New Testament.

Here the reader needs to decide: Is Doherty's case about the majority of Second Century extant Christian apologists not having a historical Jesus in view within their Christianity convincing? If not, what implications does that have for how we evaluate the First Century silence? I will look at that shortly. At the least, this “too bizarre” situation should make us wary about placing our modern expectations on any ancient writer.

...

Silence in First Century writings

In JNGNM, Doherty notes similarities between the Second Century apologists and the First Century epistle writers. He writes:
  • Another aspect is the fact that in almost all the apologists we find a total lack of a sense of history. They do not talk of their religion as an ongoing movement with a specific century of development behind it, through a beginning in time, place and circumstances, and a spread in similar specifics. Some of them pronounce it to be very "old" and they look back to roots in the Jewish prophets rather than to the life of a recent historical Jesus. In this, of course, they are much like the 1st century epistle writers. (Page 477)
And this is so. For Doherty, the reason for the similarity is simple: both groups didn't have a historical Jesus at their core.

As Doherty notes, the similarities go further than just a lack of a historical Jesus. They include a dependence on the writings of the prophets in the Old Testament rather than the life of a historical Jesus. In my Tertullian example above, we see that he quotes Solomon rather than Jesus. He prefers attributing sayings to the 'prime wisdom' rather than to Christ. And he would rather talk about 'the name being taught' rather than Christ being incarnated and having a human ministry. Such use of allusions have their parallels in the writings of the First Century.

Again, note that all these writings – First Century and Second Century – give few historical details about anything. This is not something unique to Christian writings. Stanton notes that precise historical and chronological references are few and far between in the numerous Jewish writings discovered in the caves around the Dead Sea near Qumran. [2]

Silence in the Gospels

This pattern can also be found in the Gospels. While the Gospels do contain a few historical markers, Sanders notes that the events depicted are often linked together by phrases such as 'at this time' which, though implying a chronological setting, was probably used to link individual pericopes together. [3]

As many have noted, the Gospels surprisingly tell us little about Jesus. How long was his ministry? One year, or three? What did he look like? Was he short or tall? Married or single? Even if the Gospels were fiction or the details were pulled from Scriptures, if they had been important to the author's audience the authors should have been able to include them.
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Ulan
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Re: NT/apocrypha and its knowledge of the Gospels

Post by Ulan »

DCHindley wrote:It seems to me that Andrew is saying that we don't have a big enough sample of Pauline writings to know for sure whether he knew more about a human Jesus. Statistically, we are talking about sample size. If Paul was writing letters all the time, and he probably was (for whatever his business was, for correspondence with his communities, for friendly exchanges with his network of contacts), we may have a skewed sample. The problem with small samples is that we can get only the most general idea of the writer's POV about various subjects. How big a sample is enough? There is a formula for determining this minimum sample size, but you have to have a pretty good idea of his entire lifetime output of letters to calculate it.
http://www.raosoft.com/samplesize.html

What "Paul" does seem to know is that Jesus was anointed (i.e., was a "Christ") to die and be resurrected to save people. I don't think that he cared that much about Jesus as a person, although he was concerned to say he was born like any human and was of Judean royal extraction.

DCH
Thanks. I see the principal idea behind this, but given the size of the Corpus Paulinum, I don't think it's more than a highly theoretical caveat. We have a rather broad overview over the letter business, and the formal repetitions in these letters makes me think that we are looking pretty much at the complete list of themes that seemed of interest to the author. I don't only refer to the obvious rewrites (2Thess and 1Thess), but even the other letters show the thematic outline, like Rom which follows the structure of Gal in sequence, while incorporating themes from 1Kor. 1Kor has a beginning that follows the skeleton of 1Thess, until a letter is first mentioned in 1Kor 7. The rest of 1Kor follows the additive structure according to the interactive writing model, like 2Kor or Phil. On one hand, all the repetition of themes (with adjustments) means that it doesn't look as if there's much missing of Paul's concerns, but on the other hand, this means he is capable of tackling all these themes without referral to any stories or sayings of Jesus. Given that Paul's communities had Christ speak through all of their members, that was also unnecessary. Why refer to stories if Christ speaks here and now?
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Re: NT/apocrypha and its knowledge of the Gospels

Post by andrewcriddle »

Ulan wrote:
DCHindley wrote:It seems to me that Andrew is saying that we don't have a big enough sample of Pauline writings to know for sure whether he knew more about a human Jesus. Statistically, we are talking about sample size. If Paul was writing letters all the time, and he probably was (for whatever his business was, for correspondence with his communities, for friendly exchanges with his network of contacts), we may have a skewed sample. The problem with small samples is that we can get only the most general idea of the writer's POV about various subjects. How big a sample is enough? There is a formula for determining this minimum sample size, but you have to have a pretty good idea of his entire lifetime output of letters to calculate it.
http://www.raosoft.com/samplesize.html

What "Paul" does seem to know is that Jesus was anointed (i.e., was a "Christ") to die and be resurrected to save people. I don't think that he cared that much about Jesus as a person, although he was concerned to say he was born like any human and was of Judean royal extraction.

DCH
Thanks. I see the principal idea behind this, but given the size of the Corpus Paulinum, I don't think it's more than a highly theoretical caveat. We have a rather broad overview over the letter business, and the formal repetitions in these letters makes me think that we are looking pretty much at the complete list of themes that seemed of interest to the author. I don't only refer to the obvious rewrites (2Thess and 1Thess), but even the other letters show the thematic outline, like Rom which follows the structure of Gal in sequence, while incorporating themes from 1Kor. 1Kor has a beginning that follows the skeleton of 1Thess, until a letter is first mentioned in 1Kor 7. The rest of 1Kor follows the additive structure according to the interactive writing model, like 2Kor or Phil. On one hand, all the repetition of themes (with adjustments) means that it doesn't look as if there's much missing of Paul's concerns, but on the other hand, this means he is capable of tackling all these themes without referral to any stories or sayings of Jesus. Given that Paul's communities had Christ speak through all of their members, that was also unnecessary. Why refer to stories if Christ speaks here and now?
FTSOA I'm assuming that the standard text of the generally accepted Paulines has not been interpolated. (This may quite possibly be false but the analysis becomes very arbitrary unless one does this.)

In this case a lot of the specific claims by Paul about the life of Jesus depend on one letter only. Without Romans 1:3 we would not know that Paul believed Jesus to be descended from David without 1 Corinthians 11 we would not know that Paul believed Jesus had instituted the Eucharist etc.
Therefore most of the things that Paul believed about the life of Jesus are things that he only occasionally mentioned in his letters, presumably only when there was special reason to do so. Hence there are almost certainly a number of things Paul believed about the life of Jesus that he never found occasion to mention.

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Re: NT/apocrypha and its knowledge of the Gospels

Post by neilgodfrey »

andrewcriddle wrote: FTSOA I'm assuming that the standard text of the generally accepted Paulines has not been interpolated. (This may quite possibly be false but the analysis becomes very arbitrary unless one does this.)

In this case a lot of the specific claims by Paul about the life of Jesus depend on one letter only. Without Romans 1:3 we would not know that Paul believed Jesus to be descended from David without 1 Corinthians 11 we would not know that Paul believed Jesus had instituted the Eucharist etc.
On the contrary, in a literary culture where forgeries and interpolations were rife I suggest it is arbitrary to assume no interpolations in the letters.

The Romans 1:3 (seed of David passage) has very non-arbitrary grounds for being an interpolation. The strands of evidence are in fact multiple and strong -- beginning with the testimony of Tertullian:
Tertullian (Contra Marcion 4.36) relishes the use of Bartimaeus addressing Jesus as “Son of David” to counter Marcion’s assertion that Jesus had no human lineage or social recognition at his coming. Since Tertullian knew Paul was Marcion’s sole apostle it is perplexing that he did not conclusively push his argument against Marcion by citing this passage in Romans if it were known to him. He had opportunity to do so in CM 4.36 when discussing the Bartimaeus passage and again in CM 5.13 when discussing Romans. Even if we surmise that the reason he did not address the Romans passage was because it had been expunged by Marcion despite being kept in the gospel then we have even deeper perplexity since Tertullian would have loved nothing more than another opportunity to accuse Marcion of scandalous, hypocritical inconsistency.
Read (nonarbitrarily) in the context of other Second Temple literature with an interest in visionary experiences 1 Cor 11's testimony to the foundation of the Eucharist points to scenarios unrelated to gospel narrative developments.

Surely it is a faulty basis -- despite being the default one among many scholars -- to assume our texts are pristine.
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Re: NT/apocrypha and its knowledge of the Gospels

Post by andrewcriddle »

neilgodfrey wrote:
andrewcriddle wrote: FTSOA I'm assuming that the standard text of the generally accepted Paulines has not been interpolated. (This may quite possibly be false but the analysis becomes very arbitrary unless one does this.)

In this case a lot of the specific claims by Paul about the life of Jesus depend on one letter only. Without Romans 1:3 we would not know that Paul believed Jesus to be descended from David without 1 Corinthians 11 we would not know that Paul believed Jesus had instituted the Eucharist etc.
On the contrary, in a literary culture where forgeries and interpolations were rife I suggest it is arbitrary to assume no interpolations in the letters.

The Romans 1:3 (seed of David passage) has very non-arbitrary grounds for being an interpolation. The strands of evidence are in fact multiple and strong -- beginning with the testimony of Tertullian:
Tertullian (Contra Marcion 4.36) relishes the use of Bartimaeus addressing Jesus as “Son of David” to counter Marcion’s assertion that Jesus had no human lineage or social recognition at his coming. Since Tertullian knew Paul was Marcion’s sole apostle it is perplexing that he did not conclusively push his argument against Marcion by citing this passage in Romans if it were known to him. He had opportunity to do so in CM 4.36 when discussing the Bartimaeus passage and again in CM 5.13 when discussing Romans. Even if we surmise that the reason he did not address the Romans passage was because it had been expunged by Marcion despite being kept in the gospel then we have even deeper perplexity since Tertullian would have loved nothing more than another opportunity to accuse Marcion of scandalous, hypocritical inconsistency.
Read (nonarbitrarily) in the context of other Second Temple literature with an interest in visionary experiences 1 Cor 11's testimony to the foundation of the Eucharist points to scenarios unrelated to gospel narrative developments.

Surely it is a faulty basis -- despite being the default one among many scholars -- to assume our texts are pristine.
I said FTSOA. My point is that estimating how much Paul believed about the live of Jesus but never mentioned in his surviving letters is impossible unless one accepts the authenticity of the surviving texts. (If this is a genuinely illegitimate assumption then we simply can't estimate how much Paul believed about the life of Jesus but never explicitly said. )

On your specific points:
Tertullian deliberately argues on the basis of Marcion's own text. Since Irenaeus knew our text of Romans 1:3 it is unlikely that it was unknown to Tertullian.
If one accepts that Paul regarded the institution of the Eucharist as an event occurring upon our earth then it seems clearly related to the Gospel narratives. The alternative (that Paul regarded the institution as occurring somewher in Heaven) has IMO serious problems but I doubt whether this thread is the place to discuss them.

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Re: NT/apocrypha and its knowledge of the Gospels

Post by Ben C. Smith »

neilgodfrey wrote:The Romans 1:3 (seed of David passage) has very non-arbitrary grounds for being an interpolation. The strands of evidence are in fact multiple and strong -- ....
Thanks for the link. Why no mention of Boernerianus there?
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Re: NT/apocrypha and its knowledge of the Gospels

Post by Bernard Muller »

That's right. There are no apocryphal writings from the first century that mention any details from the earthly life of Jesus, to my knowledge.
I think 1 Clement, the Didache, Barnabas' epistle and Revelation, all of them written before the end of the 1st century, include gospels material, as explained here:
http://historical-jesus.info/gospels.html#1clement (for 1 Clement, the Didache & Barnabas' epistle)
and here for Revelation: http://historical-jesus.info/rjohn.html, then search on >> gmatthew << (short read)

Here is what Paul said about the historical Jesus:
http://historical-jesus.info/6.html (short webpage)
That would point to only one person during his generation:
http://historical-jesus.info/7.html (short webpage)

Hebrews (pre-gospels epistle) has:
“For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.” Heb 7:14 YLT
and
"how shall we escape, having neglected so great salvation? which a beginning receiving -- to be spoken through the Lord -- by those having heard was confirmed to us," Heb 2:3 YLT
Without Romans 1:3 we would not know that Paul believed Jesus to be descended from David
But we have also in Romans:
15:12 "and again, Isaiah saith, 'There shall be the root of Jesse, and he who is rising to rule nations -- upon him shall nations hope;"

Cordially, Bernard
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Re: NT/apocrypha and its knowledge of the Gospels

Post by outhouse »

andrewcriddle wrote:One issue here is that there are several 2nd century texts which are certainly later than the canonical Gospels which have little or no information about the historical Jesus.


Andrew Criddle

This is a true statement.

But at the same time certain traditions could have been built on older traditions that were reworked into their current form.


I'm not stating any plausibility or historicity, just leaving the possibility open in a few cases.
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Re: NT/apocrypha and its knowledge of the Gospels

Post by outhouse »

gmx wrote: One explanation is that the Pauline epistles were composed before the invention/fabrication of the synoptic narrative expansion.
.
No.

By all rights the gospel text were in part with a high degree of plausibility, in oral and written pieces before Marks compilation. The Passion by all rights goes back to the Pauline era.


Paul even admits there was other gospel.
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