neilgodfrey wrote:I assume too much, sorry, and don't spell out my assumptions often enough.
Ben C. Smith wrote:
I accept fully that there is an unrealistic tension in the gospel of Mark between Jesus telling his healing recipients to be quiet and them repeatedly proclaiming the news, with Jesus going right back to telling them to be quiet again, even though this tactic has never worked before.
Wrede's point is that these contradictions did not register with the author.
And I tend to agree with this statement with regard to the tension described above. This is not our bone of contention.
Ben C. Smith wrote:This contradiction can even be seen in the exorcisms, as in Mark 3.11-12:
11 Whenever the unclean spirits saw Him, they would fall down before Him and shout, “You are the Son of God!” 12 And He earnestly warned them not to tell who He was.
To go by the statement itself, by all appearances it is too late to warn the demons: they have already shouted what they know about him, and Mark makes very clear that there are listening crowds surrounding him at such events.
Wrede objects to this kind of reading of the gospel. It's not how the author meant it to be read, he argues.
It seems clear to me that you have misunderstood me here. I believe what I am saying is exactly consonant with what Wrede argues. I am saying that what is happening at the exorcisms does not work as a tangible report of events, but that Mark was fine with that tension between demons screaming out Jesus' identity and yet Jesus telling them to hush up. My point was indeed precisely that which Wrede makes about this very passage (plus one other) on page 133:
A similar point presses itself upon us in the passage 1.24-27. Jesus' power over the demons is marvelled at and this presupposes that those who marvelled were witnesses of the preceding exorcism and so also witnesses of Jesus' conversation with the demon. But the demon has cried out the secret of the holy God and according to Mark no-one was to hear this. One can gain the same impression from 3.11, 12 and this has actually happened.
Thus Mark seems very quickly to forget his own presuppositions.
I am agreeing with this. Mark does not care to resolve these kinds of contradictions.
Ben C. Smith wrote:No, I am asking why in one particular case Mark has Jesus telling his beneficiary to spread the word. . . . But this is a leap or two beyond that. This, barring some specific explanation for this one instance, is schizophrenia.
Not so for Wrede's reading, though.
Then you have misread Wrede, who on pages 140-141, which I referenced for you in my previous post, treats Mark 5.19-20 as a potential issue to be explained if his overall theory is of any merit. His eventual solution to the problem (which, again, I was responding to in my follow-up post to the OP) is not, repeat
not, that Mark has contradicted himself, but rather that Mark has bid the man keep the news to himself and his family
only. He argues that the "seeming deviation" from the other instances he has cited might be viewed instead as a "parallel" (his words, in translation of course).
That Jesus' works were well known, known for miles around, is all part of Mark's agenda. He wants to convey this message very clearly, that Jesus'' miracles and works were known by everybody. So he wants the demoniac to go and tell everyone back where he came from what had happened. The only other witnesses, the pigs, were all dead.
Mark 5.14 flatly contradicts your "no remaining witnesses" argument:
14 Their herdsmen ran away and reported it in the city and in the country. And the people came to see what it was that had happened.
Jesus having him go out to declare the great miracle is fully in keeping with Mark's theme that everybody knows about the great works of Jesus.
No,
the former demoniac proclaiming the word is what is in keeping with that theme. Jesus enjoining him to do so (or enjoining the opposite, for that matter) is
meaningless if the man does not proclaim the word. Mark has set up a clear pattern so far: Jesus says to be quiet, but the healed go out and announce the matter anyway. An instance in which Jesus tells somebody to proclaim the word is not part of that pattern. It is a counterexample to that pattern. Such an instance might be meaningful if it spelled the end of the motif of silence, for then it might be interpreted as Jesus giving up on keeping his secret and leaning into his fame. But I think that would be a strained, psychologizing interpretation to begin with (Mark being the sort of author he seems to be), and in this case it seems impossible given Mark 7.36, where silence is still enjoined.
Of course that conflicts with his other motif, but there we go.
Two motifs contradicting is one thing, but an instance which actually sabotages one of those motifs is quite another.
You once argued on your blog that Romans 1.4 seems not to be Pauline because Paul elsewhere treats Jesus as the son of God at all points, whereas this verse is more consonant with resurrection adoptionism. By your logic regarding Mark 5.19-20, however, Paul may just have contradicted himself. If Mark habitually has Jesus enjoining silence, but on one single occasion has him doing the exact opposite, then why can Paul not habitually think of Jesus as the son of God from the beginning, but on one single occasion think of him as becoming son of God at his resurrection? And, if you think that the particular contradiction is greater in Paul than that in Mark, and thus less likely to be flirted with by Paul than by Mark, then please understand that
this is exactly what I am saying about the two kinds of contradiction in Mark: it is one thing to have demons and healed people telling about Jesus on the one hand and having Jesus tell them to be quiet on the other, quite another to have Jesus do the exact opposite from his usual practice. The two kinds of contradictions are not of equal merit or likelihood. The first, which is an established pattern throughout the gospel at any rate, can be explained by reference to a Marcan focus on the messianic secret (as Wrede argues). The second cannot, at least not on its
prima facie interpretation,
as Wrede himself acknowledges; hence his reinterpretation of it as a parallel rather than as a deviation!
In fact, on page 125 Wrede argues that the idea of the messianic secret was, not only
capable of introducing contradictions of the kind he is treating in this section of the book, but also
bound to do so. Yet anyone can see that the contradiction coddled by Mark 5.19-20 is
not one that was bound to happen. Mark may have been led by his own separate desires to emphasize Jesus' attempt to keep secrecy on the one hand and his beneficiaries' eagerness to spread his fame on the other, but there was
nothing forcing him to actively reverse the first of those desires from within by making Jesus deliberately break the secrecy motif himself.This by itself proves that I am debating
you on this point,
not Wrede.
One last attempt to delineate the difference. Wrede argues that Mark either does not notice (or at least does not care about) the tension or contradiction inherent in Jesus enjoining secrecy and others spreading his fame. But there is no way Mark could have failed to notice (or care about) Jesus facilitating the spreading of his fame when all along he has had Jesus straining to conceal it. The two tensions are of very different orders.
Ben.