spin wrote:Ben C. Smith wrote:spin wrote:In the thread I had in mind you may remember I argued for 11:23-27 as an orthodox augmentation of Paul's feast. The Didache fits well with what Paul presents, assuming 11:23-27 is not Pauline.
Agreed. I believe our only real difference on
that part of the sequence is verse 28.
Given the use of "cup" and "bread" in the Didache, I don't have any problem at all with v28. It has always been the start of Paul's instruction on the topic for me. As the Didache has no problem with the cup and the bread in a non-passion oriented sacred meal, why should we have a problem with their appearance in 1 Cor 11:28?
It is a subtle point, but the reasons for my demurral on this verse are as follows, as
I wrote elsewhere:
Ben C. Smith wrote:The gospels (except Luke minus the interpolation) and Justin Martyr have bread/cup, whereas the Didache, 1 Corinthians 10.15-17, 21, and the original text of Luke have cup/bread.
Now, there are examples in 1 Corinthians 10-11 of bread/cup (or the equivalent), but I think that they admit of their own explanations. 1 Corinthians 10.3-4, for example, mentions spiritual food before spiritual drink, but that is because the manna comes before the water from a rock in the book of Exodus (chapters 16 and 17). And 1 Corinthians 10.31 has "eat and drink," but that is because, in Greek as in English, "eating and drinking" is more of an expression in its own right than "drinking and eating" (I confirmed this a while ago to my own satisfaction with a few informal searches on the TLG, but let me know if you have a different sense). But, where Paul is describing the dominical supper itself, naming the elements instead of finding their parallels in scripture or leaning on a stock phrase, he places the cup first, before the bread, just as in the Didache: 1 Corinthians 10.16, 21.
Verse 28 has the order bread/cup, but without the reasons I can easily discern for that order in other parts of 1 Corinthians. But I find little reason to debate the point very much, since it is, as I said, quite subtle. If you do not think my reasoning sufficient, you can take a number and join the line of others on this forum who have read the same argument and thought it lacking.
spin wrote:As a side issue, I'm puzzled by the use of "Do not give what is holy to the dogs" in Didache 9.5, as a teaching with regard to access to the feast. It is word-for-word with Mt 7:6a, but there it has no real context, just threaded into a laundry list of sayings and linked to the similar saying about swine.
My interpretation of the saying about dogs is that it is a warning not to reveal or extend the mysteries of the cult to unworthy outsiders. Dogs as representing outsiders are found in Revelation 22.15, as well. This may have been a general saying specifically applied in the Didache to
one of those mysteries: the Eucharist, but I cannot prove that it was generic before it came to be applied to the Eucharist; it is just a possibility. That there is
no real context at all for the saying in Matthew 7 suggests to me that this is one of many church sayings with a ritual or ecclesiastical function which have been placed on Jesus' lips in the gospels. I think that Didache 11.7 is another such saying, with its
original context being how to treat prophetic utterances in the church (compare 1 Corinthians 12 and 14), just as we find in the Didache, but its
adopted gospel context eventually being something about Jesus' relationship to the spirit in Mark 3.28-30. I have more on this topic
elsewhere, where I attempt to isolate two very likely and two possible accretions in the text of the gospel of Mark.