Biblical Criticism & History Forum - earlywritings.com

The understanding is the plain meaning of the text.

The text consistently uses a singular form when discussing a hypothetical, not to say that that hypothetical will happen on only one occasion but that the rule applies to whenever it happens. Devarim 24:1 speaks of finding a corpse, but does in the singular. This doesn't mean that it can only happen once. Even 18:10 which discusses the impermissibility of sorcerers says that A sorcerer should not be found among you. This doesn't mean that you must have more than one at a time for it to be OK. The use of the singular is to make a general case, not an exclusive moment. When Bamidbar 13 speaks of taking a man afflicted with tzara'at to THE kohen it does not mean that there will be only 1 kohen.

Note that the following verse also uses the singular noun. Note the use of the definitive article:

"But the prophet, that shall speak a word presumptuously in My name, which I have not commanded him to speak, or that shall speak in the name of other gods, that same prophet shall die.'"

See also Deut. 13:2 which also deals with a false prophet: "If there arise in the midst of thee a prophet..."

The language is the same. Here the same term for "arise/raise" is used.

Clearly, there were many false prophets, so obviously the verse is not talking about a singular definitive false prophet. It stands to reason that the early verses are also not exclusive to a single prophet. Indeed, these verses are the source for the commandment to listen to the words of a true prophet. Obviously, this commandment refers to all true prophets through history.

http://judaism.stackexchange.com/questi ... or-prophet

ppens. Devarim 24:1 speaks of finding a corpse, but does in the singular. This doesn't mean that it can only happen once. Even 18:10 which discusses the impermissibility of sorcerers says that A sorcerer should not be found among you. This doesn't mean that you must have more than one at a time for it to be OK. The use of the singular is to make a general case, not an exclusive moment. When Bamidbar 13 speaks of taking a man afflicted with tzara'at to THE kohen it does not mean that there will be only 1 kohen.

Note that the following verse also uses the singular noun. Note the use of the definitive article:

"But the prophet, that shall speak a word presumptuously in My name, which I have not commanded him to speak, or that shall speak in the name of other gods, that same prophet shall die.'"

See also Deut. 13:2 which also deals with a false prophet:

The book's superscription claims that Jeremiah was active for forty years, from the thirteenth year of Josiah (627 BCE) to the fall of Jerusalem in 587. It is clear from the last chapters of the book, however, that he continued to speak in Egypt after the assassination of Gedaliah, the Babylonian-appointed governor of Judah, in 582. This suggests that the superscription is trying to make a theological point about Jeremiah by comparing him to Moses – where Moses spent forty years leading Israel from slavery in Egypt to the Promised Land, Jeremiah's forty years saw Israel exiled from the land and Jeremiah himself ultimately in exile in Egypt.

WTF does Jeremiah have to do with understanding a northern Israelite text like the Torah? What?

We learn from the superscription to the book that Jeremiah was born into a priestly family at Anathoth, a village three miles north of Jerusalem. Anathoth, although close to the capital city of the Southern Kingdom, nevertheless belonged to Benjamin, which was part of the Northern Kingdom, and it preserved northern traditions at the sanctuary there.

https://books.google.com/books?id=_ZuPC ... ts&f=false

And what kind of retarded source have you cited where 'Deuteronomy' is cited two different ways by the same author: