Jesus is not the Son of Man

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Michael BG
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Jesus is not the Son of Man

Post by Michael BG »

In Q there was a saying where Jesus talks of the Son of Man as a separate being in heaven from himself.

Luke 12:8-9 contains it:
[8] "And I tell you, every one who acknowledges me before men, the Son of man also will acknowledge before the angels of God;
[9] but he who denies me before men will be denied before the angels of God.
Matthew 10:32-33 contains a parallel which Matthew has likely changed.
[32] So every one who acknowledges me before men, I also will acknowledge before my Father who is in heaven;
[33] but whoever denies me before men, I also will deny before my Father who is in heaven.
I read in The Apocalyptic Imagination by John J Collins foot note 30 page 262 “Luke 12:8-9 (…) … but Vielhauer showed that this has its setting in the early church. See Yarbro Collins, ‘The Origin of the Designation’ 152.”

In ‘The Origin of the Designation of Jesus as Son of Man’ by Adela Yarbro Collins in The Harvard Theological Review 1987, Collins writes regarding Lk 12:8-9, “Vielhauer demonstrated that this saying probably does not go back to Jesus. He pointed out that the saying reflects a legal situation in which followers of Jesus were required to make a statement about their allegiance to Jesus. Such a social setting is far more plausible after the crucifixion than before it.”

I have not read the Vielhauer article. If anyone can find it in English on the internet please post the link to it or post in English his case.

Here I present the case for why this saying in Lk 12:8-9 does go back to Jesus based on the article ‘The Angelic Son of Man in Luke 12:8’ in Novum Testamentum XXIV (1982) by David Catchpole (https://www.jstor.org/stable/1560828?se ... b_contents)

First Catchpole discusses what the Q test was.

Lk 12:8

Λέγω δὲ ὑμῖν, πᾶς ὃς ἂν ὁμολογήσῃ ἐν ἐμοὶ ἔμπροσθεν τῶν ἀνθρώπων,
καὶ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ὁμολογήσει ἐν αὐτῷ ἔμπροσθεν τῶν ἀγγέλων τοῦ θεοῦ:

My literal translation:
I-say but to-you, that every-one who ever acknowledges in me front-of the men
also the Son of Man acknowledges in him front-of the angels of God

Lk 12:9

ὁ δὲ ἀρνησάμενός με ἐνώπιον τῶν ἀνθρώπων
ἀπαρνηθήσεται ἐνώπιον τῶν ἀγγέλων τοῦ θεοῦ.

My literal translation:
He yet disowning me in-sight-of the humans
shall-be-renounced in-sight-of the angels of God

Mt 10:32

Πᾶς οὖν ὅστις ὁμολογήσει ἐν ἐμοὶ ἔμπροσθεν τῶν ἀνθρώπων,
ὁμολογήσω κἀγὼ ἐν αὐτῷ ἔμπροσθεν τοῦ πατρός μου τοῦ ἐν [τοῖς] οὐρανοῖς:

My literal translation:
Every-one then who acknowledges in me front-of the men
acknowledges I-also in him front-of the Father of-me the in the heavens

Mt 10:33

ὅστις δ' ἂν ἀρνήσηταί με ἔμπροσθεν τῶν ἀνθρώπων,
ἀρνήσομαι κἀγὼ αὐτὸν ἔμπροσθεν τοῦ πατρός μου τοῦ ἐν [τοῖς] οὐρανοῖς.

My literal translation:
Who yet ever disowns me front-of the men disowning
I-also him in-front the Father of-me the in the heavens

In the following quotes from the Catchpole article the translations in brackets are mine.

Catchpole thinks that Λέγω δὲ ὑμῖν (But I say to you) “was more probably added by LkR”.

He thinks that Luke’s ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου (the Son of Man) is more likely the Q version than Matthew’s ἐγώ (I). Not that I could find ἐγώ. There is καγω (I also) which might be what Catchpole means. Catchpole argues (if I have understood him correctly) that “the presence of ‘Son of man’ in the probably independent variant Mk 8:38 supports its originality here”, there is a catchword link in Q between 12:8 to 12:10, there is a Semitic play on the words men and son of man, and “an I/Son of Man distinction points to primitiveness”.

He thinks Luke’s τῶν ἀγγέλων (the angels) is more likely than Matthew’s τοῦ πατρός μου (the Father of me) because Matthew often adds “my Father in heaven”. It seems to me that this might apply to ἐν [τοῖς] οὐρανοῖς (in the heavens) as well. I think he might think it unlikely that Luke would have replaced Father with angels.

Catchpole states “the Q wording probably ran:

πᾶς ὃς ἂν ὁμολογήσῃ ἐν ἐμοὶ ἔμπροσθεν τῶν ἀνθρώπων,
καὶ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ὁμολογήσει ἐν αὐτῷ ἔμπροσθεν τῶν ἀγγέλων τοῦ θεοῦ.

ὁ δὲ ἀρνησάμενός με ἐνώπιον τῶν ἀνθρώπων
ἀπαρνηθήσεται ἐνώπιον τῶν ἀγγέλων τοῦ θεοῦ.

My translation:
That every-one who ever acknowledges in me front-of the men
also the Son of Man acknowledges in him front-of the angels of God

He yet disowning me in-sight-of the humans
shall-be-renounced in-sight-of the angels of God

My preferred English translation is:
Everyone who acknowledges me before men, the Son of man also will acknowledge before the angels of God;
but whoever denies me before men will be denied before the angels of God.
Catchpole asserts that it should be treated as an isolated saying and any context in the gospels is secondary.

Catchpole looks at the word ὁμολογήσει. He states that its usage is similar to that in the Septuagint Job 40:9 “then I will acknowledge (ὁμολογήσω) to you that your right hand can give you victory”; Wisd 18:13 “Though they had disbelieved everything because of their magical arts, yet, when their firstborn were destroyed, they acknowledged your people to be God’s son”. He concludes that “These texts demonstrate that the essence of ὁμολογια is open verbal acknowledgement of fundamental religious truth in the wake of the experience of God’s activity …”

Catchpole turns to ἔμπροσθεν next recognising it is used sometimes as meaning “standing before the judge… but more frequently there is no such connotation: Joshua 1:5; 2 Kings 19:18; 3 Kings 8:5; 1 Chr. 15:24; 2 Chr. 5:6; 15:8; 1 Esd. 1:5, 11; 8:87, 91; Neh. 8:1; Dan. 1:5; 7:10; 3 Macc. 5:50. In the gospel tradition non-legal use of this term is widely attested: … Mt 5:16 6:1 … 5:24; 11:26 (= Lk10:21) 17:2 (= Mk 9:2); 18:14; 26:70; Mk 2:12; Lk 5:19; 14:2; Jn. 12:37.”

Catchpole concludes that while “Vielhauer’s view has been highly influential … it cannot be sustained”.

I particularly dislike the translation of ὁμολογήσει. as “confess” which remind me of “confess that Jesus is Lord”. I prefer the translation to be “acknowledge” where there are no Christological connotations and the acknowledgement could be as a messenger from God or a prophet.

Catchpole does “a small detour into Mt 18:10”
"See that you do not despise one of these little ones; for I tell you that in heaven their angels always behold the face of my Father who is in heaven.”
Catchpole states that the authenticity of this verse is not relevant, that it is the idea of a “heavenly angelic sponsor or guarantor or counterpart (cf. Tobit 12:15; Enoch 104:1 Lk 1:19) represents an individualising of the old idea of an angelic ruler for each nation (cf. Dan 10:12; 12:1 Sir. 17:17). The point here is that the angel in God’s presence is presumed to act either favourably or unfavourably in relation to the person addressed by the saying, depending on whether that person treats the μικρος (little ones) favourably or unfavourably. For the angel is the guarantor of the μικρος. In the light of such a scheme Lk 12:8 makes perfect sense. It suggests that the Son of man will act either favourably or unfavourably in respect of the person addressed who either confesses or denies Jesus, precisely because the Son of man is the heavenly guarantor of the earthly Jesus” (p 260).

Catchpole states that with the above interpretation the saying is about salvation and Christology is not a concern. He claims it “dovetails exactly with the probably authentic parable ‘Hearer and Doers of the Word’ (Mt 7:24-27 = Lk 6:47-49)”.This is where those who hear and does what Jesus says will be saved.

Catchpole also states that Lk 12:8 “dovetails with such eschatological sayings as Mt 24:27, 37, 39 = Lk 17:24, 26, 30 which show no sign of equating the Son of man with Jesus or of being disqualified from authentic tradition by presupposing the delay of the Parousia.”

Then Catchpole states that Lk 12:8 “dovetails precisely with Mt 25:31-46” where the “scheme demands that the Son of man shall not previously have been seen on earth”. This is because those being judged ask when they saw the Son of man and the answer is they didn’t they will be judged on how they responded to “the least of these my brethren” (vs 40, 45).

Catchpole suggests that because the Q material makes strenuous efforts to equal Jesus with the eschatological coming one (an example being Mt 12:2 = Lk 7:19) there must have been an earlier tradition where there is no such equation. And that Lk 12:8 is such an earlier tradition.

Catchpole concludes that “Lk 12:8 issues a promise and a warning which combine as a demand. That is, a firm commitment to the words of Jesus and open acknowledgement of the significance of his mission within the design of God will be matched by corresponding acknowledgement in heaven on the part of the Son of man – the angelic counterpart of Jesus …”

This idea seems to conform to the teaching of Jesus where he declares that people must respond to what he preaches; it is implied in these sayings that people will be judged according to their response. This seems to present Jesus as a prophet in the Old Testament tradition and not as a pre-existent heavenly being as presented by later Christianity.

It also seems to conform to the idea that “this generation” will be judged in Lk 11:29 (= Mt12:39), 11:31 (= Mt 12:42), 11:32 (= Mt 12:41).
Kunigunde Kreuzerin
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Re: Jesus is not the Son of Man

Post by Kunigunde Kreuzerin »

Michael BG wrote: Luke 12:8-9 contains it:
[8] "And I tell you, every one who acknowledges me before men, the Son of man also will acknowledge before the angels of God;
[9] but he who denies me before men will be denied before the angels of God.
Matthew 10:32-33 contains a parallel which Matthew has likely changed.
[32] So every one who acknowledges me before men, I also will acknowledge before my Father who is in heaven;
[33] but whoever denies me before men, I also will deny before my Father who is in heaven.
Catchpole argues (if I have understood him correctly) that “the presence of ‘Son of man’ in the probably independent variant Mk 8:38 supports its originality here”, there is a catchword link in Q between 12:8 to 12:10, there is a Semitic play on the words men and son of man, and “an I/Son of Man distinction points to primitiveness”.
I think you raised a really interesting question. But isn't there a bit too much hope that such cognate texts like Luke 12:8-9/Matthew 10:32-33 on the one side and Mark 8:38 on the other side could be independent from one another. Structure and half of the words are the same. The word "denies" can be find in Mark 8:34.

Mk 8:38
"Whosoever, therefore, shall be ashamed of Me and of My words in this adulterous and sinful generation, of him also shall the Son of Man be ashamed when He cometh in the glory of His Father with the holy angels.”
Michael BG
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Re: Jesus is not the Son of Man

Post by Michael BG »

Kunigunde Kreuzerin wrote:
Michael BG wrote: Luke 12:8-9 contains it:
[8] "And I tell you, every one who acknowledges me before men, the Son of man also will acknowledge before the angels of God;
[9] but he who denies me before men will be denied before the angels of God.

Catchpole argues (if I have understood him correctly) that “the presence of ‘Son of man’ in the probably independent variant Mk 8:38 supports its originality here”, ….
I think you raised a really interesting question. But isn't there a bit too much hope that such cognate texts like Luke 12:8-9/Matthew 10:32-33 on the one side and Mark 8:38 on the other side could be independent from one another. Structure and half of the words are the same. The word "denies" can be find in Mark 8:34.

Mk 8:38
"Whosoever, therefore, shall be ashamed of Me and of My words in this adulterous and sinful generation, of him also shall the Son of Man be ashamed when He cometh in the glory of His Father with the holy angels.”
The Q version has both parts the positives ὁμολογήσῃ (acknowledge) and ἀρνησάμενός (denies), while Mark only has the negative αρνησαμενος (ashamed). The Marcan version has the addition of “this adulterous and sinful generation” and has the Son of Man “come(s) in the glory of his Father with the holy” (angels). It seems reasonable to me that in Mark’s tradition the coming of the Son of Man has been added and the angels are “holy”. I don’t think that the saying needs the Son of Man to come to make sense.

You could make out a case that Mark has used Q but there must be a counter argument based on what is in Q but not in Mark. I think Catchpole's position is that Q and Mark are independent of each other (I don’t recall him making a strong case against the two-source hypothesis).
davidbrainerd
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Re: Jesus is not the Son of Man

Post by davidbrainerd »

I think the simpler explanation is in earlier versions of these texts, where we now read about a "son of man" the text just said "I". This theory can also work in 2 situations. (1) If originally Jesus was not considered to be God, then when he was deified the reading was changed from "I" to "son of man" to indicate a divine man per the vision of Daniel. OR (2) If Marcionism came first, then when the Catholic editors were changing the gospel to be more Judaic, in order to associate the Chrestos with the Old Testament, they were not content to simply change the title Chrestos to Christos, but felt the need to tie him solidly to the book of Daniel, since they placed a lot of stock in that book, so they made him the "son of man" as well.
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neilgodfrey
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Re: Jesus is not the Son of Man

Post by neilgodfrey »

Michael BG wrote:In Q there was a saying where Jesus talks of the Son of Man as a separate being in heaven from himself.

Luke 12:8-9 contains it:
[8] "And I tell you, every one who acknowledges me before men, the Son of man also will acknowledge before the angels of God;
[9] but he who denies me before men will be denied before the angels of God.
Is the usage of the term very different from some other usages in the gospel of Luke?
Luke 5:24 But that ye may know that the Son of Man hath power upon earth to forgive sins,” He said unto the one sick with the palsy, “I say unto thee, arise and take up thy couch and go into thine house.”

Luke 6:5 And He said unto them, “The Son of Man is Lord also of the Sabbath.”

Luke 9:26 For whosoever shall be ashamed of Me and of My words, of him shall the Son of Man be ashamed when He shall come in His own glory and in His Father’s and of the holy angels.

Luke 12:40 Be ye therefore ready also, for the Son of Man cometh at an hour when ye think not.”

Luke 17:22 And He said unto the disciples, “The days will come when ye shall desire to see one of the days of the Son of Man, and ye shall not see it.

Luke 17:24 For as the lightning that lighteneth one part under heaven shineth unto the other part under heaven, so shall also the Son of Man be in His day.

Luke 17:26 And as it was in the days of Noah, so shall it be also in the days of the Son of Man

Luke 17:30 “Even thus shall it be in the Day when the Son of Man is revealed.

Luke 18:8 I tell you that He will avenge them speedily. Nevertheless when the Son of Man cometh, shall He find faith on the earth?”

Luke 21:27 And then shall they see the Son of Man coming in a cloud with power and great glory.

Luke 21:36 Watch ye therefore, and pray always, that ye may be accounted worthy to escape all these things that shall come to pass, and to stand before the Son of Man.”

Luke 22:69 Hereafter shall the Son of Man sit on the right hand of the power of God.”
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Michael BG
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Re: Jesus is not the Son of Man

Post by Michael BG »

davidbrainerd wrote:I think the simpler explanation is in earlier versions of these texts, where we now read about a "son of man" the text just said "I". This theory can also work in 2 situations.
(1) If originally Jesus was not considered to be God, then when he was deified the reading was changed from "I" to "son of man" to indicate a divine man per the vision of Daniel.
You seem to be suggesting that the Matthean version is the earlier. If there is no “son of man” and instead there is “I” in the saying then Jesus is identifying himself as a heavenly being; a “divine man” if you like. If you think the original saying came from a time before Jesus was seen as divine then the entity in heaven cannot be Jesus and therefore it can't be “I”.
davidbrainerd wrote:OR
(2) If Marcionism came first, then when the Catholic editors were changing the gospel to be more Judaic, in order to associate the Chrestos with the Old Testament, they were not content to simply change the title Chrestos to Christos, but felt the need to tie him solidly to the book of Daniel, since they placed a lot of stock in that book, so they made him the "son of man" as well.
If you think Marcionism came first, then you need to decide what the wording of this passage was in the Marcionist version!
neilgodfrey wrote:
Michael BG wrote:In Q there was a saying where Jesus talks of the Son of Man as a separate being in heaven from himself.

Luke 12:8-9 contains it:
[8] "And I tell you, every one who acknowledges me before men, the Son of man also will acknowledge before the angels of God;
[9] but he who denies me before men will be denied before the angels of God.
Is the usage of the term very different from some other usages in the gospel of Luke?
Yes and no.

Luke 12:8-9 is one of the clearest sayings where Jesus and the Son of Man are separate beings; one on earth, one in heaven.

Some of the Lucan sayings you list identify the Son of Man as a being who is to come (Lk 12:40, 17:24, 17:26, 17:30, 18:8, 21:27 [Mk 13:26]) and I think if they were said by Jesus he was not referring to himself and his “second coming”.

Some are similar to Lk 12:8-9 where the Son of Man has a judging role (Lk 9:26 [Mk 8:38 {see my response to Kunigunde Kreuzerin above}], Lk 21:36).

Luke 22:69 is a parallel from Mk 14:62, which I am not sure is historical with linkage to both Dan. 7:13 and Ps. 110:1, but again there is an implied separation between Jesus and the Son of Man.

Luke 17:22 as you point out does not identify the Son of Man with Jesus, but does imply a delayed coming.

There are other Son of Man sayings, which can be seen (as pointed out by Maurice Casey and others) as referring either to Jesus or Jesus and the disciples (Lk 5:24 [Mk 2:10] and Lk 6:5 [Mk 3:28] are examples, as is Lk 9:58 [= Mt 8:20]).
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neilgodfrey
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Re: Jesus is not the Son of Man

Post by neilgodfrey »

Another perspective is to read references of Jesus to the Son of Man through the lens of their author's christology. If Luke's gospel makes a special theme of the distinctiveness between the lowly Jesus who comes to suffer and die as a human martyr and the exalted Jesus who is rewarded for his suffering witness with glory and exaltation, do we not have a ready explanation for the question raised and one that does not need to construct pre-gospel events, sources and scenarios?
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Michael BG
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Re: Jesus is not the Son of Man

Post by Michael BG »

neilgodfrey wrote:Another perspective is to read references of Jesus to the Son of Man through the lens of their author's christology. If Luke's gospel makes a special theme of the distinctiveness between the lowly Jesus who comes to suffer and die as a human martyr and the exalted Jesus who is rewarded for his suffering witness with glory and exaltation, do we not have a ready explanation for the question raised and one that does not need to construct pre-gospel events, sources and scenarios?
It is possible to think that Luke created everything in his gospel from scratch. But I think it is very, very, very unlikely.

Personally I accept that Luke and Matthew used Mark and a common source(s) which is known as Q? Do you not accept this?

I am not sure that “Luke's gospel makes a special theme of the distinctiveness between the lowly Jesus who comes to suffer and die as a human martyr and the exalted Jesus who is rewarded for his suffering witness with glory and exaltation”.

In Mark, Luke and Matthew there are three types of sayings – eschatological ones, suffering ones and “claims of authority” ones (these are problematic as these “authority claims” could refer to Jesus, or Jesus and his followers, or the whole of mankind). It is highly unlikely that early Christianity created all of these sayings. I am not aware of any scholars who believe in an historical Jesus who believe that all Son of Man sayings were created by early Christianity.
outhouse
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Re: Jesus is not the Son of Man

Post by outhouse »

The word is awkward in Koine.

Despite all authors having Jesus use the word, it is the Christian authors creation and plagiarism of OT text.
outhouse
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Re: Jesus is not the Son of Man

Post by outhouse »

neilgodfrey wrote:Another perspective is to read references of Jesus to the Son of Man through the lens of their author's christology.
Correct context is key here
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