Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
iskander
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by iskander »

Yes , but did the destruction of the temple affect Christian theology. ?
Charles Wilson
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by Charles Wilson »

iskander wrote:The New Testament is a Jewish narrative of events that took place before the temple was destroyed. This narrative would reflect the cultural and historical events of its people and times .
I didn't know the Flavians were Jewish! Golly, you learn something new every day.
I bet Bernice was very surprised to learn that! "Wow, Titus, now we can get hitched. 'N you're already circumcised! Let's tell the Senate..."
iskander
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by iskander »

Charles Wilson wrote:
iskander wrote:The New Testament is a Jewish narrative of events that took place before the temple was destroyed. This narrative would reflect the cultural and historical events of its people and times .
I didn't know the Flavians were Jewish! Golly, you learn something new every day.
I bet Bernice was very surprised to learn that! "Wow, Titus, now we can get hitched. 'N you're already circumcised! Let's tell the Senate..."
I am considering the New Testament as found in the canon.
outhouse
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by outhouse »

iskander wrote: Thank you outhouse.
Please. Give me an example of how the destruction of the temple affected Christian theology?
Because instead of compiling written Christian text/traditions around 70 CE which solidified the main gospel everyone else copied. The theology would have evolved further and other competing sects with a more gnostic version may have become the popular version.

Mark IMHO was a product of the temple destruction, the book the others copied. Given a chance a different Christology may have become the orthodox version.


I THINK a better question is just how much of an impact did it have?
outhouse
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by outhouse »

iskander wrote:
Was Jesus made ( declared) God in the Council Nicaea in 325 AD because the temple had been destroyed?

Possibly yes.

Different Christology's existed, and part of that was solidified because the temple falling accelerated the divorce of Judaism.

The gospels were used in the arguments at Nicaea, had they been written later the evidence very well could have changed.
iskander
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by iskander »

outhouse wrote:
iskander wrote: Thank you outhouse.
Please. Give me an example of how the destruction of the temple affected Christian theology?
Because instead of compiling written Christian text/traditions around 70 CE which solidified the main gospel everyone else copied. The theology would have evolved further and other competing sects with a more gnostic version may have become the popular version.

Mark IMHO was a product of the temple destruction, the book the others copied. Given a chance a different Christology may have become the orthodox version.


I THINK a better question is just how much of an impact did it have?
You may be right in cutting it fine.
Jesus was a Jewish believer and his views on religion reflect this background. Luther was a Catholic believer and his religious understanding speaks of modified Catholicism.
I haven't found anything in the Christian theology which could be attributed to the destruction of a building.
Last edited by iskander on Fri Apr 07, 2017 4:16 pm, edited 1 time in total.
iskander
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by iskander »

outhouse wrote:
iskander wrote:
Was Jesus made ( declared) God in the Council Nicaea in 325 AD because the temple had been destroyed?

Possibly yes.

Different Christology's existed, and part of that was solidified because the temple falling accelerated the divorce of Judaism.

The gospels were used in the arguments at Nicaea, had they been written later the evidence very well could have changed.
Jesus divorced Judaism when he assumed power over the Sabbath, power to forgive sins, power to declare that only the ten commandments come from god and power to render the temple obsolete.
outhouse
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by outhouse »

iskander wrote: I haven't found anything in the Christian theology which could be attributed to the destruction of a building.
It is eluded to in Mark, the problem here is if your writing to and for Roman citizens in the Empire, you are not going to make the Romans the bad guys, or you will paint a bulls eye on your back.

Christian theology also states Romans were not the bad guys and as already stated possibly used parables to mirror them [whore of Babylon]

Christian theology also made Jews the bad guys, and they promoted anti Semitism. And the majority of that can be attributed to that war that destroyed the temple.


Instead of denial, you sir as stated already, need to look at how it factually was changed. I am not promoting major changes, just minor but also looking at possibilities.
outhouse
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by outhouse »

iskander wrote:Jesus divorced Judaism .

Did he? or did the authors say he did that because they were selling monotheism to Roman citizens ??? :wtf:
outhouse
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Re: Why did no New Testament books mention AD70?

Post by outhouse »

iskander wrote: power to render the temple obsolete.

Thank you for building my case and providing me with evidence.

They rendered the temple obsolete because it was destroyed and not there anymore
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