The Preaching of Peter - reference to temple worship

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Lev
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The Preaching of Peter - reference to temple worship

Post by Lev »

Hi all,

I’d appreciate any help with understanding the following passage in the Preachings of Peter (I'm not allowed to post URLs, but I've taken the text from the Early Christian Writings site):
Neither worship ye him as do the Jews, for they, who suppose that they alone know God, do not know him, serving angels and archangels, the month and the moon: and if no moon be seen, they do not celebrate what is called the first sabbath, nor keep the new moon, nor the days of unleavened bread, nor the feast (of tabernacles?), nor the great day (of atonement).
I have two questions:

1. Is the PoP criticising Jews for keeping or not keeping certain Jewish festivals?
On the face of it, it appears the PoP is criticising certain Jews for “serving… the month and the moon” a tradition that restricted their worship of God, as they would refuse to attend certain Jewish pilgrimage festivals (Passover and Pentecost) unless they observed the moon. This would be a tacit criticism of Jews refusing to worship at the temple. On the other hand, it does appear to be wrapped in the same language Paul used to criticise certain Jewish Christians who insisted on worshipping Angels and “observing festivals, new moons, or Sabbaths.” (Col 2:16-19) Here Paul urged the Colossians to refrain from such activities, which appears to be at odds with PoP. Was PoP attempting to (cack-handily) reproduce Paul’s criticism of certain Jewish customs?

2. Regardless of the direction of PoP’s criticism, does this reference to temple worship suggest a pre 70 date for PoP?
Regardless of which direction this teaching goes in (forbidding or encouraging temple worship), surely this could not have been invented after the temple was destroyed in 70 as the teaching would be utterly redundant and nonsensical. Can anyone think of an incentive to invent a doctrine that could not be followed? If it is an authentic teaching of Peter, then this would automatically place the teaching pre-70, but it would allow the document’s composition to exceed 70. However, if it is an authentic teaching first recorded after 70, we must ask again, what the incentive would be to preserve it beyond the point where it could be observed?
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rakovsky
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Re: The Preaching of Peter - reference to temple worship

Post by rakovsky »

The criticism is of those " serving angels and archangels, the month and the moon". The subsequent part of your quote is just saying that they serve the moon so excessively that if there is no moon they don't observe the sabbath.
He could be talking about folk practices.

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Secret Alias
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Re: The Preaching of Peter - reference to temple worship

Post by Secret Alias »

Lev

You have an odd way of framing assertions as "questions. " No the Preaching of Peter does not appear to be lauding what was then traditional Jewish worship in any way. The criticism that Jews saw and "observed" the planets as angelic watchers is pretty much irrefutable proof that Judaism is being criticized. Your problem is that you can't separate YOUR adherence to a very recent form of Judaism from Judaism in the second commonwealth period. Yes the Preaching seems to know an early form of Judaism that disappeared in the second century. No it is not framing this knowledge "positively."
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
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Re: The Preaching of Peter - reference to temple worship

Post by andrewcriddle »

The Preaching of Peter seems to be talking about Jewish calendrical practices for determining the beginnings of years and months in order to determine the dates of festivals. This continued after 70 CE although the festivals could no longer be properly celebrated.

Andrew Criddle
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DCHindley
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Re: The Preaching of Peter - reference to temple worship

Post by DCHindley »

Lev wrote:Hi all,

I’d appreciate any help with understanding the following passage in the Preachings of Peter (I'm not allowed to post URLs, but I've taken the text from the Early Christian Writings site):
Neither worship ye him as do the Jews, for they, who suppose that they alone know God, do not know him, serving angels and archangels, the month and the moon: and if no moon be seen, they do not celebrate what is called the first sabbath, nor keep the new moon, nor the days of unleavened bread, nor the feast (of tabernacles?), nor the great day (of atonement).
I have two questions:

1. Is the PoP criticising Jews for keeping or not keeping certain Jewish festivals?
On the face of it, it appears the PoP is criticising certain Jews for “serving… the month and the moon” a tradition that restricted their worship of God, as they would refuse to attend certain Jewish pilgrimage festivals (Passover and Pentecost) unless they observed the moon. This would be a tacit criticism of Jews refusing to worship at the temple. On the other hand, it does appear to be wrapped in the same language Paul used to criticise certain Jewish Christians who insisted on worshipping Angels and “observing festivals, new moons, or Sabbaths.” (Col 2:16-19) Here Paul urged the Colossians to refrain from such activities, which appears to be at odds with PoP. Was PoP attempting to (cack-handily) reproduce Paul’s criticism of certain Jewish customs?

2. Regardless of the direction of PoP’s criticism, does this reference to temple worship suggest a pre 70 date for PoP?
Regardless of which direction this teaching goes in (forbidding or encouraging temple worship), surely this could not have been invented after the temple was destroyed in 70 as the teaching would be utterly redundant and nonsensical. Can anyone think of an incentive to invent a doctrine that could not be followed? If it is an authentic teaching of Peter, then this would automatically place the teaching pre-70, but it would allow the document’s composition to exceed 70. However, if it is an authentic teaching first recorded after 70, we must ask again, what the incentive would be to preserve it beyond the point where it could be observed?
The PoP is believed to be related to the Pseudo-Clementine Homilies & Recognitions, which are apparently different recensions of a common document, and is often considered the core document upon which the Ps. Clementine books were based. The PoP is usually considered to be a product of "Ebionites" who are "Jewish Christians" of some kind. This is considered to be either the kind of Judaic Christianity that the family of Jesus represented and led "into the times of Trajan," or a later sect of gentile "Judaizers" who adopted Judean ways.

IMHO, the latter (Judaizers) are more likely the source of the Ps. Clementines, so if there is a common source like a PoP then it probably came from an "Ebionite." The PoP, based on the fragments and allusions collected by James, does seem to have a very similar orientation to the Judaizing sect.

Were they pre-70? As Andrew C pointed out, festivals were observed long after the temple was destroyed sort of like the way the Passover continued to be "observed" as a "Seder" (a memorial, as the required sacrifice could not be offered in the temple). Token observances were common outside of the immediate vicinity of the temple even when the temple stood, as long distance travel as pilgrims was difficult, and dangerous (unless in some sort of group), not to mention expensive.

Besides, even in Judaism, the Mishnah, formalized around 200 CE (130 years after the temple was destroyed), continued to preserve an idealized picture of what was practiced in the temple (as well as preserved non-Torah oral tradition) in order to be a model for when a new temple was allowed to be rebuilt. When writing devotional literature, lots of liberties could be, and were, taken.

DCH
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Lev
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Re: The Preaching of Peter - reference to temple worship

Post by Lev »

Many thanks for your response DCH.
DCHindley wrote:The PoP, based on the fragments and allusions collected by James, does seem to have a very similar orientation to the Judaizing sect.
Are you referring to the NT Epistle of James here? If so, where do you find the allusions to the PoP?
DCHindley wrote: Were they pre-70? As Andrew C pointed out, festivals were observed long after the temple was destroyed sort of like the way the Passover continued to be "observed" as a "Seder" (a memorial, as the required sacrifice could not be offered in the temple). Token observances were common outside of the immediate vicinity of the temple even when the temple stood, as long distance travel as pilgrims was difficult, and dangerous (unless in some sort of group), not to mention expensive.

This is very interesting - I wasn't aware that Jews in antiquity continued to observe pilgrimage festivals after the temple was destroyed. What are the earliest sources or references to this practice?
DCHindley wrote: Besides, even in Judaism, the Mishnah, formalized around 200 CE (130 years after the temple was destroyed), continued to preserve an idealized picture of what was practiced in the temple (as well as preserved non-Torah oral tradition) in order to be a model for when a new temple was allowed to be rebuilt. When writing devotional literature, lots of liberties could be, and were, taken. DCH
I'm afraid I haven't read the Mishnah, but from your understanding was the Mishnah encouraging the continued observances of the pilgrimage festivals, or was it simply preserving the practices so that they may be reinstated upon the rebuilding of the temple?
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Lev
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Re: The Preaching of Peter - reference to temple worship

Post by Lev »

rakovsky wrote:The criticism is of those "serving angels and archangels, the month and the moon". The subsequent part of your quote is just saying that they serve the moon so excessively that if there is no moon they don't observe the sabbath.
He could be talking about folk practices.
Aye, the PoP does criticise those not observing the sabbath if the moon wasn't seen, but it does seem to specifically mention pilgrimage temple festivals such as Passover and Pentecost: "nor the days of unleavened bread, nor the feast (of tabernacles?), nor the great day (of atonement)"
Secret Alias
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Re: The Preaching of Peter - reference to temple worship

Post by Secret Alias »

You realize Lev that there is nothing in the Pentateuch about a temple or the requirement for a temple. The Pentateuch doesn't even mention Jerusalem let alone its sanctity. The Jews could have continued to fulfill all the requirements of the Law after 70 CE. The authorities chose not to for wholly political purposes not religious ones.
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
― Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra, Don Quixote
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Lev
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Re: The Preaching of Peter - reference to temple worship

Post by Lev »

andrewcriddle wrote:The Preaching of Peter seems to be talking about Jewish calendrical practices for determining the beginnings of years and months in order to determine the dates of festivals. This continued after 70 CE although the festivals could no longer be properly celebrated.

Andrew Criddle
Many thanks Andrew. What's the best and earliest sources that state that Jews continued to celebrate pilgrimage temple festivals after the temple had been destroyed?
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Re: The Preaching of Peter - reference to temple worship

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Lev wrote:Many thanks for your response DCH.
DCHindley wrote:The PoP, based on the fragments and allusions collected by James, does seem to have a very similar orientation to the Judaizing sect.
Are you referring to the NT Epistle of James here? If so, where do you find the allusions to the PoP?
I believe David is referring to the fragments of the Preaching of Peter collected by M. R. James: http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/t ... peter.html.
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