The use of εὐθύς and εὐθέως in Mark.

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Ben C. Smith
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The use of εὐθύς and εὐθέως in Mark.

Post by Ben C. Smith »

A discussion elsewhere has reminded me of an observation I have had regarding the use of individual words and phrases to signal tendencies in an author. To wit, we depend completely upon our theory of textual history for such arguments. As an example, the standard wisdom is that Mark always uses εὐθύς while Matthew and Luke use both εὐθύς and εὐθέως (both terms meaning "straightway" or "immediately" in an adverbial sense). Yet that assertion cannot derive from a straightforward tally of the manuscripts, for the manuscripts are deeply, deeply split on this issue.

So here are the instances of εὐθύς and εὐθέως (plus one adjectival use of εὐθείας) in the text of the gospel of Mark, according to 5 important manuscripts and the Byzantine tradition:

א = Sinaiticus
A = Alexandrinus
B = Vaticanus
D = Bezae
W = Washingtonianus
Byz = Byzantine


Reference
א
A
B
D
W
Byz
1.3εὐθίας*εὐθείας*εὐθείας*εὐθείας*εὐθείας*εὐθείας*
1.10εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύς-εὐθέωςεὐθέως
1.12εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθύς
1.18εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
1.20εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
1.21εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
1.23εὐθύς-εὐθύς---
1.28εὐθύς**εὐθύςεὐθύςεὐθύς-εὐθύς
1.29εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύς--εὐθέως
1.30εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθύς-εὐθέως
1.31-εὐθέως-εὐθέως-εὐθέως
1.42εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
1.43εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθύς***εὐθέως
2.2-εὐθέως-εὐθέως-εὐθέως
2.8εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύς--εὐθέως
2.12εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέως-εὐθέως
3.5---εὐθέως--
3.6εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύς--εὐθέως
4.5εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
4.15εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέως
4.16εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύς-εὐθέωςεὐθέως
4.17εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέως
4.29εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέως-εὐθέως
5.2εὐθύςεὐθέως-εὐθέως-εὐθέως
5.13-εὐθέως-εὐθέως-εὐθέως
5.29εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
5.30εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
5.36-εὐθέως----
5.42aεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
5.42bεὐθύς-εὐθύς---
6.25εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύς-εὐθύςεὐθέως
6.27εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
6.45εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέως
6.50εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύς-εὐθέωςεὐθέως
6.54εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέως
7.25εὐθύς-εὐθύςεὐθέως--
7.35-εὐθέως--εὐθέωςεὐθέως
8.10εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύς-εὐθύςεὐθέως
9.8---εὐθέως--
9.15εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέως
9.20εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύς-εὐθέωςεὐθέως
9.24εὐθύς**εὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
10.52εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
11.2εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
11.3εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
14.43εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύς--εὐθέως
14.45εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύς-εὐθέωςεὐθέως
14.63----εὐθύς-
14.72εὐθύς-εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέως-
15.1εὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθύςεὐθέωςεὐθέωςεὐθέως
15.46----εὐθέως-
Totals (not
counting
1.3)
εὐθύς: 39
εὐθέως: 0
omitted: 9
corrected: 2
εὐθύς: 1
εὐθέως: 41
omitted: 8
εὐθύς: 38
εὐθέως: 2
omitted: 10
εὐθύς: 5
εὐθέως: 28
omitted: 17
εὐθύς: 9
εὐθέως: 22
omitted: 18
nonextant: 1
εὐθύς: 5
εὐθέως: 36
omitted: 9

* The word εὐθ(ε)ίας is used adjectivally, not adverbially, in Mark 1.3.
** The εὐθύς in Sinaiticus at Mark 1.28 and 9.24 has been added by a corrector.
*** Washingtonianus lacks Mark 1.43 altogether.

Sinaiticus never has εὐθέως at all, while Alexandrinus is nearly as pure in the other direction, having εὐθύς only once. Vaticanus has εὐθέως only twice. Bezae, Washingtonianus, and the Byzantine tradition are more mixed, but all three favor εὐθέως over εὐθύς. Some verses (like 1.23) look suspiciously as if they once lacked the adverb and εὐθύς was added; others (like 1.31) look suspiciously as if they once lacked the adverb and εὐθέως was added.

I am not sure that we can truly say that Mark only ever used εὐθύς and never εὐθέως, at least not without assuming our conclusion. Any thoughts on that?

Ben.
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Secret Alias
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Re: The use of εὐθύς and εὐθέως in Mark.

Post by Secret Alias »

As always my contribution might be described as tangential at best. εὐθύς is the usual translation for yashar in the LXX and yashar is used as the homiletic etymology for the mystical name Israel but also oddly enough is translated at once as chrestos (I think Proverbs somewhere). I've always wondered IF there was a proto-gospel in Hebrew whether canonical Mark's use of εὐθύς was somehow related for a mystical use of yashar in the original. An example of the concept that might be interesting is the form christianoi which - if originally chrestoi (i.e. without Latinized ending) makes sense as trailing back to the 'new Israel' of Paul, as a elite/elect who were renowned for their 'uprightness' (perhaps symbolized originally by Jesus's early healing of the man lying in bed who Jesus yelled 'be straight' (another potential 'yashar-ism' in the Hebrew proto-gospel). Again tangential at best, useless at worst.
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
― Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra, Don Quixote
Secret Alias
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Re: The use of εὐθύς and εὐθέως in Mark.

Post by Secret Alias »

Again more distraction. Being upright goes to the heart of being an Israelite:
lf we open our bibles, we shall discover that the Torah itself is called the Sepher Hayashar, “The Upright Book", and our rabbis in the Talmud, ask “why is the Torah called the Sepher Hayashar?“, and they answer “Because it is the Book of the Upright (yasharim)." https://books.google.com/books?id=2yBQA ... AQ6AEIIzAA
on Genesis as the book of Yashar:
[The same Rabbis also discuss the following:] And the sun stood still, and the moon stayed until the nation had avenged themselves of their enemies. Is not this written in the book of Jashar.
(sub-discussion) What is the book of Jashar? — Said R. Hiyya b. Abba in the name of R. Johanan: It is the book of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob,1 who are designated as righteous,2 as it is said, Let me die the death of the righteous:3 And where is this incident hinted at [in Genesis]? — And his seed shall fill the nations:4 When shall [Ephraim's fame] reach the nations?
When the sun shall stand still for Joshua (where the book of Yashar is explicitly mentioned). And the sun stayed in the midst of the heaven and hasted not to go down about a whole day.5 How long [is day-time said to have lasted]? — Said R. Joshua b. Levi: Twenty four hours: [The sun] moved for six hours and stood still for six, then it moved for six and stood still for six, then it moved for six and stood still for six; the whole incident equalled a whole day.[Abodah Zarah 25a]
For those not familiar with the texts cited in (typically terse) gemara the passage is from Balaam's prophesy about Israel:
“Balak brought me from Aram,
the king of Moab from the eastern mountains.
‘Come,’ he said, ‘curse Jacob for me;
come, denounce Israel.’
8 How can I curse
those whom God has not cursed?
How can I denounce
those whom the Lord has not denounced?
9 From the rocky peaks I see them,
from the heights I view them.
I see a people who live apart
and do not consider themselves one of the nations.
10 Who can count the dust of Jacob
or number even a fourth of Israel?
Let me die the death of the yasharim (יְשָׁרִ֔ים) and may my final end be like theirs!”
In other words Israel = yasharim i.e. the upright, righteous.
Last edited by Secret Alias on Fri May 05, 2017 4:25 pm, edited 1 time in total.
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
― Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra, Don Quixote
Secret Alias
Posts: 18362
Joined: Sun Apr 19, 2015 8:47 am

Re: The use of εὐθύς and εὐθέως in Mark.

Post by Secret Alias »

Isaiah 40:3/Mark 1:3

A voice of one calling:
“In the wilderness prepare
the way for the Lord;
make straight (יַשְּׁרוּ֙) in the desert
a highway for our God.

It is worth noting that (near) contemporary exegesis at Qumran understood Isaiah 40:3 to mean the study or interpretation of the Torah - https://books.google.com/books?id=99f9s ... an&f=false The addition of I will send my messenger ahead of you, who will prepare your way” may well point to either Jesus or John as the one who will explain the Torah.
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
― Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra, Don Quixote
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