Monotheism and John 1:1

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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A_Nony_Mouse
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Re: Monotheism and John 1:1

Post by A_Nony_Mouse »

All this a god not a god and such is a subset of the issue Julian the Apostate raised over the messengers, aka angels, in Against the Galileans, aka Christians maybe. In his terms, the teachings of Moses are silent on their generation which is where we might say creation. As he is taking the teachings of Moses as serious and comparable in intent to Greek expressions of god origins the teaching is taken as final and complete in its own words.

Taken the same way, that a statement about this Logos is to be taken as well thought out and definitive, this Logos is not generated by the uppercase God in the same statement. Therefore it existed, along with the messengers, alongside the God, being neither superior, inferior, the same as or different from this God. It simply is or rather was to avoid mangling the tense for theological reasons.
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