Galilee = heaven?

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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Giuseppe
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Galilee = heaven?

Post by Giuseppe »

The last words of the angel in the Gospel of Peter:
He is risen and gone thither from whence he was sent.
Hence not in Galilee.

But then in the lost incipit of the Gospel of Peter Jesus came down from heaven and not from Nazaret.

Now, the case is been made by some that "Galilee" in Mark is allegory of the heaven.
Therefore this would point to the priority of the Gospel of Peter (or his source) in relation to Mark, at least about the real origin of Jesus, and against the thesis that he came from Nazaret in proto-Mark.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
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Giuseppe
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Re: Galilee = heaven?

Post by Giuseppe »

Why was the "heaven" converted in "Galilee"?

It seems that the gentile Christians had to be satisfied someway by the fact that the origin of Jesus was not the Judaea strictu senso, but a land of mixed people of Jews and gentiles as the Galilee. So the celestial alien status of the original Jesus was replaced by his being "alien" to Judaea and to Jews (as from Galilee).

I start to suspect that the entire package of the "Gospel Jesus" tradition was in essentia very hostile to Jews from any point of view one may see him.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
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Giuseppe
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Re: Galilee = heaven?

Post by Giuseppe »

It seems that the best explanation of the why "Galilee" is the same of the why "Capernaum": The land of the gentiles had to be purified by Jesus from all the idols/demons of the pagans. And the Jews had to be freed from the angels and "stoicheia".
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
iskander
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Re: Galilee = heaven?

Post by iskander »

Galilee = heaven?, No
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Giuseppe
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Re: Galilee = heaven?

Post by Giuseppe »

It is interesting that for Rylands the Earliest Gospel had what he describes as a “locally and temporally undefined idea that the Christ had “appeared upon earth” and been “conversant with men””:
To pass from the locally and temporally undefined idea that the Christ had “appeared upon earth” and been “conversant with men” to a detailed representation of his appearance was a natural step for synbolizing Gnostics to take. It then became necessary to decide upon a place and purpose for hia appearance.
(Beginning, p. 246)

So it is not more necessary to assume, as Carrier does, the existence of lost Pauline letters where we would have found possibly “smoking guns” pro mythicism.

If Christ was “conversant with men” in the Earliest Gospel - in some time between the celestial sub-lunar myth of Paul and the writing of Mark - , obviously to reveal the gnosis, who were these men? This remembers the Revelation of Seth:
The whole creation that came from the dead earth will be under the authority of death. But those who reflect on the knowledge of the eternal god in their hearts will not perish. They have not received spirit from this kingdom but from something eternal, angelic. . . . The illuminator will come . . . Seth. And he will perform signs and wonders to scorn the powers and their ruler.

Then the god of the powers is disturbed and says, “What is the power of this person who is higher than we are?” Then he brings a great wrath against that person. And glory withdraws and lives in holy houses it has chosen for itself. The powers do not see it with their eyes, nor do they see the illuminator. They punish the flesh of the one over whom the holy spirit has come.
http://gnosis.org/naghamm/adam-barnstone.html
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
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