Paul --- O Brother Who Art Thou?

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robert j
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Paul --- O Brother Who Art Thou?

Post by robert j »

EDIT: I have removed the unnecessary, distracting, and too hastily written introductory paragraphs --- leaving the primary points of the post. I made no changes to the remaining material below.


But I saw none of the other apostles except James, the brother of the Lord. (Galatians 1:19)

Do we not have a right to take along a believing wife, even as the rest of the apostles and the brothers of the Lord and Cephas? (1 Corinthians 9:5)

I think these two verses in which the “brother(s)” are specified as “brother(s) of the Lord” can be explained as an “us and them” distinction.

Paul had a complex and contentious relationship with the Judeans that Paul claimed as predecessors. He used them, and abused them. He kept them at arm’s length. He set them apart. The letter to the Galatians provides the vast majority of the details of the relationship.
In his attempt to convince his Gentile Galatian congregation that circumcision was not necessary for them, Paul used these predecessors to demonstrate that;

the leaders in Jerusalem ---
--- did not compel Paul’s Greek companion Titus to be circumcised (2:3),
--- acknowledged that Paul was entrusted with bringing the good news to the uncircumcised (2:7).
--- gave Paul the right hand of fellowship and granted to Paul the Gentile franchise (2:9).

But in the same group of verses in Galatians, Paul undermined these same leaders and set himself apart. Paul associated his visit with some “false brothers” (2:4), Paul made it clear that he did not “yield in subjection for even an hour” (2:5), Paul threw a little shade on the Pillars’ past (2:6), Paul made it clear that the Pillars “added nothing to me” (2:6), Paul opposed Cephas “to his face” in Antioch and accused Cephas of hypocrisy over table traditions in a confrontation precipitated by a visit from representatives sent by James (2:11-13).

In 1 Corinthians 9:1-5, Paul also framed the issue in terms of “us and them”. Paul and his associate vs. the Judean group ---
Are you not my work in the Lord? … Have we no authority to take about a believer as a wife, as do the other apostles, and the brothers of the Lord, and Cephas? Or only I and Barnabas, have we no authority not to work?

Yes, Paul recognized the Judean group as members of the faith, as all initiated believers were recognized as part of the wider family ---
And we know that God works together all things for good to those loving God, to those being called according to His purpose, because those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be conformed to the image of His Son, for Him to be firstborn among many brothers. (Romans 8:28-29)

Paul’s tribe, the members of his congregations, he called just “brothers”. They were his brothers as well as brothers of the Lord.

But Paul just couldn’t bring himself to refer to the Judean group --- to the others --- as “brothers”, that is, as his brothers. So Paul set them apart, referring to them only as “brothers of the Lord”. He had to grant them that status at least.

Us and them.

It reminds me of a scene from Game of Thrones, for those familiar with the series. Theon Greyjoy comes home after 9 years and greets his father Balon with a proposal of an alliance from Robb Stark (the Starks being long-time adversaries of Balon). Theon says that Robb thinks of him as a brother. But the bitter Balon retorts, “No, not in my hearing, you will not name him brother.”

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Last edited by robert j on Sat Dec 09, 2017 9:50 am, edited 1 time in total.
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Ben C. Smith
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Re: Paul --- O Brother Who Art Thou?

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robert j wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 4:24 pmIn Paul’s own five letters addressed to his communities and in the letter Romans, the term “brother(s)” is used about 99 times. The noun (ἀδελφὸς) is found in both the singular and plural, in various grammatical cases, and only in the masculine.
Nitpick: the noun ἀδελφός is a masculine noun, so of course it is always masculine. However, the corresponding feminine noun, ἀδελφή, is used in Romans 16.1, 15; 1 Corinthians 7.15; 9.5. (It is also used in Philemon [1.]2.)
None of the 99 occurrences of “brother(s)” are considered to indicate a biological sibling relationship --- except, some claim, the only two passages in which the reference to brothers is followed by the phrase “of the Lord”. But why in those two?
Because it is in precisely these two cases (especially 1 Corinthians 9.5) that the term "brother" cannot simply mean "fellow believer," point blank, as it does elsewhere for Paul.

You go on to give a fairly brilliant argument (to my eye) for it meaning something other than biological brothers in these two cases, as well, but I think we ought to admit up front that the traditional understanding is not silly. Given that Paul's usual usage, simply and purely a metaphor for believers in Christ, is ruled out in these two cases, reverting to the usual meaning of "brother" cannot be considered a stretch. Even if Paul used the term a thousand times metaphorically, he is absolutely allowed to use it literally whenever he pleases; to say otherwise is to invent linguistic rules of the most arbitrary nature.

Arguments have been made (fairly decent ones, at that) to the effect that a special group was called the "brothers of Yahweh" (or some such), but again, we ought to admit that this is drawing on information that has to be reconstructed; we are not informed of the existence of such a group explicitly.

But I saw none of the other apostles except James, the brother of the Lord. (Galatians 1:19)

Do we not have a right to take along a believing wife, even as the rest of the apostles and the brothers of the Lord and Cephas? (1 Corinthians 9:5)

I think these two verses in which the “brother(s)” are specified as “brother(s) of the Lord” can be explained as an “us and them” distinction.

....

Paul’s tribe, the members of his congregations, he called just “brothers”. They were his brothers as well as brothers of the Lord.

But Paul just couldn’t bring himself to refer to the Judean group --- to the others --- as “brothers”, that is, as his brothers. So Paul set them apart, referring to them only as “brothers of the Lord”. He had to grant them that status at least.
As I intimated above, I think this is a very insightful argument.

But I also think that Bernard has a point:
Bernard Muller wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 3:49 pm Paul was very unlikely to laud that James by a pompous title, because, as shown latter in Galatians, his relation with the pillars (who included James) was rather on the cold side.
Honestly, to your ear, does "brother of the Lord" not sound a bit pompous as a practically forced admission of spiritual kinship?
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robert j
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Re: Paul --- O Brother Who Art Thou?

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Ben C. Smith wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 5:00 pm
robert j wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 4:24 pmIn Paul’s own five letters addressed to his communities and in the letter Romans, the term “brother(s)” is used about 99 times. The noun (ἀδελφὸς) is found in both the singular and plural, in various grammatical cases, and only in the masculine.
Nitpick: the noun ἀδελφός is a masculine noun, so of course it is always masculine. However, the corresponding feminine noun, ἀδελφή, is used in Romans 16.1, 15; 1 Corinthians 7.15; 9.5. (It is also used in Philemon [1.]2.)
Yes. Thanks. Too hasty. ETA: I edited the first portion of the OP.
Ben C. Smith wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 5:00 pm
You go on to give a fairly brilliant argument (to my eye) for it meaning something other than biological brothers in these two cases ...
robert j wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 4:24 pm
But I saw none of the other apostles except James, the brother of the Lord. (Galatians 1:19)

Do we not have a right to take along a believing wife, even as the rest of the apostles and the brothers of the Lord and Cephas? (1 Corinthians 9:5)

I think these two verses in which the “brother(s)” are specified as “brother(s) of the Lord” can be explained as an “us and them” distinction.

....

Paul’s tribe, the members of his congregations, he called just “brothers”. They were his brothers as well as brothers of the Lord.

But Paul just couldn’t bring himself to refer to the Judean group --- to the others --- as “brothers”, that is, as his brothers. So Paul set them apart, referring to them only as “brothers of the Lord”. He had to grant them that status at least.

As I intimated above, I think this is a very insightful argument.
Thanks.
Ben C. Smith wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 5:00 pm
... but I think we ought to admit up front that the traditional understanding is not silly.
I don't think it is silly either.
Ben C. Smith wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 5:00 pm
But I also think that Bernard has a point:
Bernard Muller wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 3:49 pm Paul was very unlikely to laud that James by a pompous title, because, as shown latter in Galatians, his relation with the pillars (who included James) was rather on the cold side.
Honestly, to your ear, does "brother of the Lord" not sound a bit pompous as a practically forced admission of spiritual kinship?
Yes, perhaps it does sound a bit pompous.
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Re: Paul --- O Brother Who Art Thou?

Post by Ben C. Smith »

I also want to get feedback on this interesting way of reading the following verse:

1 Corinthians 9.5: 5 Do we not have a right to take along a sister wife, even as the rest of the apostles and the brothers of the Lord and Cephas?

We know from the rest of 1 Corinthians (assuming it is somewhat intact) that the Corinthians are familiar with apostles and other luminaries from other places (Apollos, Cephas, and so on), so it is not hard to imagine them knowing whoever the people are who are here called "the brothers of the Lord." My question, however, is how they would know that it is these particular people to whom the title "brothers of the Lord" applies. In other words, let us imagine that one of the "brothers of the Lord" designated here is named Lucius (just for the sake of example). Well, it is easy to imagine that the Corinthians might know who Lucius is, but the trick is how they know that Lucius is a "brother of the Lord," whatever that may mean:
  1. If Lucius is a biological brother of Jesus, then all is explained. Brother means brother; the Lord means Jesus (spin would object here, but I am not convinced); and, if the Corinthians know who Lucius is (as we must suppose), there is really no impediment to them also knowing that he is Jesus' brother (indeed, it would be a bit weird if they did not know this).
  2. If Lucius belongs to a special group known as "the brothers of the Lord," then all is explained. "Brother of the Lord" means "member of this special group." If the Corinthians know who Lucius is (as, again, we must suppose), then they probably also know that he belongs to the group in question. (This option, I think, is already stepping a bit further down the path of unknowns than the first option, in some ways, since the extant texts are full of references to biological brothers of Jesus but come up empty when it comes to explicitly fingering a special group known as "the brothers of the Lord," thus requiring an argument that the first option does not require; but, for my purposes here, it is enough to note that the Corinthians would know what is meant by "the brothers of the Lord" under this option, just as they would the under the first.)
  3. If Lucius is just a believer with whom Paul does not see eye to eye, then all is not explained yet, is it? How would the Corinthians know that Paul is using this shorthand to indicate such a person? It hardly means anything like that on its own. We have to imagine that Paul has used this shorthand before with the Corinthians, but we have no evidence of this. For the first two options, then, we have to imagine that the Corinthians know who the people are of whom Paul is writing (a natural assumption, given that Paul seems to think they need no introduction); for this third option, however, we have to imagine both that the Corinthians knew of them and that Paul has spoken this way before. If this is Paul's first time using this lingo with them, I do not see how they could have any idea to whom he is referring. I am a fan of minimizing assumptions, so is there any way to mitigate this extra one which the hypothesis on the table in this thread seems to demand?
Furthermore, under this current hypothesis, why is there a need in this verse to mention "brothers" at all? If Paul wishes to avoid calling them his brothers, why not just avoid the term "brothers" altogether? If Jesus had biological brothers, or if there was a group known by this title, then it is very clear why Paul would use the term: that is a pinpoint way to identify them. But if not? Surely there would be other ways to refer to them (by name, for example) than by using the very word Paul finds uncomfortable.

And what about the following verse?

Galatians 1.19: 19 But I did not see any other of the apostles except James, the brother of the Lord.

The very wording here implies that James is an apostle. Why add the "brother of the Lord" designation at all? If calling James an apostle was not enough to identify him (since perhaps there was more than one James in that position?), then adding his kinship to Jesus or his membership to a special group would certainly help. But what purpose does adding "brother of the Lord" serve under the current hypothesis? It again seems to import a word which, ex hypothesi, Paul has no reason to want to emphasize. I cannot shake the feeling that the term "brother(s) of the Lord" in both cases (Galatians 1.19 and 1 Corinthians 9.5) is meant to help identify certain people, to distinguish them from other people (this is part of the reason why "brother" cannot simply mean "fellow believer" in these passages).

For the record, I am suspicious of the instance in Galatians 1.19. I think that the entire passage in which it rests was absent from Marcion; that the proto-orthodox would have had plenty of good reasons for adding the passage to the epistle; and that, even if the passage overall is original, the phrase itself as an extra identifier for James sounds more useful to later Christians trying to sort out who was who in the first generation of the faith than for the Galatians. I do not have a drop-dead argument for any of this, but I have my suspicions. 1 Corinthians 9.5... no idea yet.
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Re: Paul --- O Brother Who Art Thou?

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robert j wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 6:22 pm
Ben C. Smith wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 5:00 pmHonestly, to your ear, does "brother of the Lord" not sound a bit pompous as a practically forced admission of spiritual kinship?
Yes, perhaps it does sound a bit pompous.
To turn this line of inquiry back on Bernard, though, if the phrase does come off as pompous, then I have to wonder why Paul would use it for James if he is the biological brother of Jesus. Why not the more neutral "brother of Jesus," I wonder?

If it is because "brothers of the Lord" was used by James' allies, who did not mind giving him and his brothers a pompous title, and thus Paul used it because that was simply the custom, then the term starts to sound to me like a well-worn title, not too far off from supposing that there was a group who used that title metaphorically. In other words, if this is indeed a pompous title, then it is, in fact, a title, and then the wall of probability starts to dissolve between the title having arisen from biological facts and the title having arisen from other considerations, at least so far as the Pauline epistles themselves are concerned; I admit that there are still plenty of other authors who think that Jesus had brothers, and we would have to suppose that they were all misled by the title of this early group whose name did not survive except in two oblique references in Paul.
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Re: Paul --- O Brother Who Art Thou?

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In 1 Corinthians 9:1-5, Paul also framed the issue in terms of “us and them”. Paul and his associate vs. the Judean group ---
Are you not my work in the Lord? … Have we no authority to take about a believer as a wife, as do the other apostles, and the brothers of the Lord, and Cephas? Or only I and Barnabas, have we no authority not to work?
To be noted: Cephas (in 1 Cor 9:5 & Gal 2:9), who is also a pillar of the church of Jerusalem, is not among "the brothers of the Lord", but James will be called later "brother of the Lord".
To turn this line of inquiry back on Bernard, though, if the phrase does come off as pompous, then I have to wonder why Paul would use it for James if he is the biological brother of Jesus. Why not the more neutral "brother of Jesus," I wonder?
I think "brother of Jesus" would imply James to be equal to Jesus, certainly not what Paul wanted his audience to believe.
But "brother of the Lord" implies that Jesus, as the Lord, is far superior to James.

Cordially, Bernard
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Re: Paul --- O Brother Who Art Thou?

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Bernard Muller wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 9:31 pm
To turn this line of inquiry back on Bernard, though, if the phrase does come off as pompous, then I have to wonder why Paul would use it for James if he is the biological brother of Jesus. Why not the more neutral "brother of Jesus," I wonder?
I think "brother of Jesus" would imply James to be equal to Jesus, certainly not what Paul wanted his audience to believe.
But "brother of the Lord" implies that Jesus, as the Lord, is far superior to James.
I admit, that is something to consider.
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Re: Paul --- O Brother Who Art Thou?

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It’s abundantly apparent there are no completely satisfactory solutions currently on the table for Galatians 1:19 or for 1 Corinthians 9:5.

Paul’s occasional letters lack a great deal of information, with his initial evangelizing visits most likely his primary mode of imparting information to his congregations.

That, along with Paul’s dubious logic here and there, create many difficult passages. And I think Paul contrived some of his backstories, perhaps believing the ends justified the means.

I think trying to sift Paul’s words with too-fine a screen --- trying to impose too much logic --- can often lead one unnecessarily astray. I think more often than not, motives of pride; and thirst for recognition, compensation and authority, provide the best trail markers.

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Re: Paul --- O Brother Who Art Thou?

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Bernard Muller wrote: Thu Dec 07, 2017 9:31 pm
I think "brother of Jesus" would imply James to be equal to Jesus, certainly not what Paul wanted his audience to believe.
But "brother of the Lord" implies that Jesus, as the Lord, is far superior to James.
To be noted: Cephas (in 1 Cor 9:5 & Gal 2:9), who is also a pillar of the church of Jerusalem, is not among "the brothers of the Lord", but James will be called later "brother of the Lord".
You can't have both the things, Bernard:

1) that by the construct ''Brother of the Lord'', the Lord is a metaphysical giant in comparison to the minuscule James,

2) that by the construct ''Brother of the Lord'', James is far superior to Peter (as not a ''Brother of the Lord'', too).

You have to decide: Was ''Brother of Lord'' a title of which to have pride over all the other simple ''brothers''? Or (AUT) was it only a construct used by Paul to point out the downsizing of the James's own claims?

Note the difference:

''I am the Brother of the Lord, therefore I am the best of all!''

''I saw only the Brother of the Lord''.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
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Re: Paul --- O Brother Who Art Thou?

Post by Bernard Muller »

2) that by the construct ''Brother of the Lord'', James is far superior to Peter (as not a ''Brother of the Lord'', too).
Not so if "brother of the Lord" means only blood brother of Jesus (a person of little interest for Paul, except for Jesus' crucifixion/sacrifice as Christ). Furthermore, according to gMark, Peter was a disciple of Jesus (when alive) when James was not. That would compensate.

''I saw only the Brother of the Lord'
What is meant by that is that Paul saw none of the Jerusalem apostles with the exception of James.

Cordially, Bernard
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