So now may be explained the great enigma represented by the interpolation of
''city of Galilee'' made by Luke in the original Earliest Gospel.
The Earliest Gospel had as incipit the following passages:
Jesus descended [out of heaven] into Capernaum
and was teaching [in the synagogue] on the Sabbath days;
And they were astonished at his doctrine,
for his word was in authority.
33 And in the synagogue there was a man,which had a spirit of an unclean devil,
and cried out with a loud voice, saying,
34 Let us alone; what have we to do with thee, thou Jesus ?
art thou come to destroy us? I know thee who thou art; the Holy One of God.
35 And Jesus rebuked him, saying,
Hold thy peace, and come out of him.
And when the devil had thrown him in the midst,
he came out of him, and hurt him not.
36 And they were all amazed, and spake among themselves, saying,
What a word is this!
for with authority and power he commandeth the unclean spirits,
and they come out.
37 And the fame of him went out into every place of the country round about.
40 Now when the sun was setting,
all they that had any sick with divers diseases brought them unto him;
and he laid his hands on every one of them, and healed them.
41 And devils also came out of many, crying out, and saying,
Thou art the Son of God.
[-41c] And he rebuking them suffered them not to speak.
42 And when it was day, he departed and went into a desert place:
and the people sought him,
and came unto him, and stayed him, that he should not depart from them.
43 And he said unto them,
I must preach the kingdom of God to other cities also:
for therefore am I sent.
As it is already known, to make Jesus a more historical person, Luke edited the passage so (in
red the interpolation):
3:1/4:31 In the fifteenth year of Tiberius Caesar,
Pontius Pilate being governor of Judea,
Jesus descended [out of heaven] into Capernaum, a city in Galilee,
Why did Luke add
''a city in Galilee'' to describe Capernaum?
Because ''Capernaum'' was not located
anywhere in the Earliest Gospel.
''Capernaum'' is symbol of Jerusalem.
Not only. But in the Earliest Gospel Jesus replied to who wanted him:
43 And he said unto them,
I must preach the kingdom of God to other cities also:
for therefore am I sent
Jesus is saying that he is abandoning Capernaum (and so, the
entire Judaea and Jerusalem)
to go to other cities. Of the gentiles. (or of the Galilea, that is the same thing of ''gentiles'').
By localizing explicitly ''Capernaum'' just in Galilea, ''Luke'' (editor) breaks the marcionite antithesis between a Jesus who is going to abandon forever Jerusalem (''Capernaum'') and a Jesus who is desired in Jerusalem (''Capernaum'') by the same his 12 (false) apostles.
So we have possibly a reason for the introduction of the
''Galilee'' in the our Gospels: now Jesus isn't abandoning Jerusalem (to go to the gentiles), but is abandoning only a mere single city of Galilee (to go to Judaea and to the other cities of Galilee).