The past tense prediction of Mark 13.19-20.

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Ken Olson
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Re: The past tense prediction of Mark 13.19-20.

Post by Ken Olson »

Ben Smith: Let me grant for the sake of argument the theological significance of the word "save" (σῴζω) in 13.20. The usage in 13.13 seems to carry theological weight, but that salvation comes across as strictly future, and not in a proleptic way. Thing is, though, it comes across in much the same way in 13.20: strictly past, but still not in a proleptic way.
I think the already/not yet issue is far more relevant to Mark 13 than you allow for. How did you determine that Mark 13.13 and 13.20 don't use “saved” "in a proleptic way." To clarify, the term proleptic applies only to the already part of the already/not yet problem, so Mark 13.13, which talks about people being saved in the future, would not be explicitly discussing proleptic salvation (whether or not Mark assumes at least some Christians are proleptically saved would have to be decided on what he says in other verses).

The problem with saying that 13.20 is not talking about proleptic salvation (granting the full theological significance of the word saved) is that Mark 13.20 is specifically discussing the elect.
Mark 13.20: And if the Lord had not cut short those days, no one would be saved; but for the sake of the elect, whom he chose, he has cut short those days.
Who or what are the elect? I did a Google search for "the elect" and the first hit I got had this:
Simply put, the “elect of God” are those whom God has predestined to salvation.
Now, modern Christians (and other people, of course) can certainly misconstrue terms and concepts found in the NT, but I think this gets it right. But this creates a problem for Mark 13.20, as it would mean that had God not cut short the days the saved ("the elect") would not have been saved. As Haenchen appositely puts it in his comment on Mark 13.20 (translation helpfully provided by Neil Godfrey):
Haenchen: Of course that's illogical. An elected person who is not saved is a contradiction in terms. But the expression is just to describe the magnitude of the tribulation, and the author succeeds well.
We might add that no contradiction emerges because God did cut short the days, thus preserving the elected status of the elect. In order to read Mark 13.20 as non-proleptic one would have to read the word saved as not referring to eternal salvation but only to preserving lives in a particular situation, a possibility you examine further down.
Ben: Had Mark played around with the notion of whether one can be considered "saved" before the end, we would have to deal with the already/not yet issue. But in both verses, 13 and 20, Mark envisions a period of testing with salvation at the end of it. The only difference is that both this period of testing and the salvation at the end of it are in the future tense in the former verse and in the past tense in the latter. (I am not sure that the already/not yet issue ever really arises in Mark.)
You start by stating that Mark is not playing around with the notion of whether one can be saved before the end here, but whether Mark is playing with that issue or not is exactly what is in question. We have to deal with the already/not yet problem in Mark 13 because, for one thing, it's the only place Mark uses the word elect and he uses it three times (Mark 13.20, 22, 27). The reason Mark doesn't address the already/not yet problem more widely in his gospel is that, within its timeframe, Jesus is the only character in it who is baptized with the holy spirit. The only place Mark can address the issue is in sayings that are talking about the future situation of Christians after Jesus's lifetime, when there are baptized Christians to be considered.

While it's true that in both Mark 13.13 and 13.20, Mark envisions a period of testing with salvation at the end of it, I think we also have to suppose that Mark's intended audience, as opposed to Jesus's audience within the narrative, were (presumably baptized) Christians. At a minimum, it would seem this would have to be true of the elect in v. 20. So the question arises, were they saved when they were baptized with the Holy Spirit or will they be saved on judgment day. This is precisely the already/not yet issue. Can someone lose his election between the time of his baptism and judgment day? Many or most modern Christians would say that one cannot lose one's election or the Holy Sprit -- if one apostatizes, it means that one had not actually received the Holy Spirit at one's baptism and never really been one of the elect. Applying this to Mark 13.20, who is specifically talking about the elect, it would mean that God cut short the days to preserve the saved status of the elect (as Haenchen suggested). That's a somewhat long-winded way of saying that Mark 13.20 may indeed be read proleptically: if God had not cut short the days, the elect would not have been saved, but the elect are saved.
Ben: The instance of "saved" in 13.20, however, may well be more literal, may it not? We may be pouring too much theology into the word. Mark is perfectly capable of using this word in the more mundane sense of saving one's life or health (as opposed to dying or continuing to suffer disease), as in 3.4; 5.23, 28, 34; 6.56; 10.52; and 15.30-31. The salvation in 13.20 may simply be the preservation of human life which would have otherwise been lost.
Who and what are the elect and how do they function on this reading? More generally, how does v. 20 work on your reading? Who are the people experiencing the worst tribulation in history? Are they Judeans who fled the defilement/destruction of the temple? Did God cut short the tribulation because some among them were elect?
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Ben C. Smith
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Re: The past tense prediction of Mark 13.19-20.

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Ken, you make excellent points here, and you may be correct in maintaining that the matter of "the elect" brings the already/not yet issue into the picture, even if the matter of salvation on its own merits may not. I will do some more thinking about that and hopefully return to this issue.

In the meantime, what do you make of the fact that it is "flesh" that is being saved? I think of verses such as 1 Corinthians 5.5 in this connection. Is the salvation of at least some "flesh" bodily here? If not, why is it "flesh" and not soul or spirit or some such? Does Mark 9.43-48 come into play? That is, does Mark really envision, in your view, such a continuity of the present fleshly existence with one's eternal state that to lose a hand here means to lose one in eternity, as well? Or is that just hyperbole? Also possibly relevant is Mark 12.25, in which the resurrection state seems angelic and not very fleshly. And of course we have lots of Pauline texts about the flesh, so did Mark follow Paul?
Last edited by Ben C. Smith on Sat Feb 24, 2018 1:19 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Charles Wilson
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Re: The past tense prediction of Mark 13.19-20.

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Ben C. Smith wrote: Sat Feb 24, 2018 12:12 pm...what do you make of the fact that it is "flesh" that is being saved?
'Cos flesh is all that there is.

Ecclesiastes 9: 4 - 6 (RSV):

[4] But he who is joined with all the living has hope, for a living dog is better than a dead lion.
[5] For the living know that they will die, but the dead know nothing, and they have no more reward; but the memory of them is lost.
[6] Their love and their hate and their envy have already perished, and they have no more for ever any share in all that is done under the sun.

This points back to another era. The Christian Transvaluation hasn't been created yet.

Best,

CW
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Ben C. Smith
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Re: The past tense prediction of Mark 13.19-20.

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My instinct is to go with the scriptural echoes:

Mark 13.20: 20 Unless the Lord had shortened those days, no flesh [οὐκ... πᾶσα σάρξ] would have been saved; but on account of the elect [διὰ τοὺς ἐκλεκτούς], whom He chose, He shortened the days.

Genesis 9.11: 11 "I establish My covenant with you; and all flesh [כָּל־בָּשָׂ֛ר, πᾶσα σάρξ] shall never again be cut off by the water of the flood, neither shall there again be a flood to destroy the earth."

Genesis 18.26: 26 And Yahweh said, "If I should find fifty righteous men in Sodom, in the city, then I shall spare the entire place on their account [δι᾽ αὐτούς].

This is an ancient and gruesome parlor game: how many righteous men does it take to make God relent from destroying the entirety of a region? (Lot and his family apparently were not enough to save Sodom, though according to Genesis 18.32 even ten righteous men would have been.)

If these echoes mean anything, then the sense is that God cut short the days of tribulation on account of the elect: that is, in order not to kill the elect along with the unrighteous who actually deserved it. Had the tribulation continued, it would/could have grown so severe and so widespread as to endanger "all flesh," something not in keeping with the spirit (at any rate) of God's promise to Noah. But to endanger all flesh is to sweep up the elect in the destruction, as well, and God relented from doing that.
Ken Olson wrote: Fri Feb 23, 2018 7:07 pmWho and what are the elect and how do they function on this reading?
"The elect" here are God's chosen ones, those who will prevail in the end; they function as the righteous in Genesis 18. Just as the (hypothetical) righteous men in Genesis 18 are those on whose account God would spare the doomed city, so the elect in Mark 13 are those on whose account God would spare the world from enough tribulation to wipe out all flesh. That word, "elect," by itself and on its own may call to order a debate on the already/not yet issue (you were right about this, and I was wrong), but in this context I am not sure that the debate arises in such a way as to affect our interpretation of the text itself. We can debate what Mark thought of the already/not yet issue, IOW, but I do not think that debate would affect my interpretation of verse 20.
More generally, how does v. 20 work on your reading? Who are the people experiencing the worst tribulation in history? Are they Judeans who fled the defilement/destruction of the temple?
Yes, though they could have been the rest of the civilized world, had God not shortened the days (thus limiting the damage). This is a theological statement, though, not an historical one. No one had to have Parthian invasions or whatnot in mind in order to predicate this limiting action of God.
Did God cut short the tribulation because some among them were elect?
Yes, just as he would have spared Sodom just because ten of them were righteous. (Your "some among them" does not have to be limited to Judeans, however; they can belong, rather, to the ranks of "all flesh.")

I do not think that this answers all the questions you raised (or even all that I myself raised, perhaps), but it is the direction I am leaning in (whether or not verse 20 is a gloss, incidentally, since if it is predicting and not postdicting, as it were, it can still envision saving "all flesh" so as not to kill the elect at the same time).
Last edited by Ben C. Smith on Sun Feb 25, 2018 5:47 am, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: The past tense prediction of Mark 13.19-20.

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Ben C. Smith wrote: Sat Feb 24, 2018 1:40 pm
"The elect" here are God's chosen ones, those who will prevail in the end; they function as the righteous in Genesis 18.
I would have thought that for Mark, whose Jesus takes us beyond the "old religion", saw a distinction between the elect and the righteous. In his 10th chapter he portrays a righteous man whom Jesus loved but who did not make it into the kingdom despite his righteousness.

The Genesis 18 narrative would be interpreted such that it was Abraham who was the elect.
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Re: The past tense prediction of Mark 13.19-20.

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Ben C. Smith wrote: Sat Feb 24, 2018 1:40 pm My instinct is to go with the scriptural echoes....
To add to this, Mark 13.13b (about those who persevere to the end being saved) and Mark 13.20 (about flesh being saved on account of the elect) probably go together in some way, unless different layers are in play. Different layers are, of course, a live option for me, but there may be connections even if these verses do not belong to the same layer, since the background texts may well be the same throughout.

Romans 12.12 finds Paul speaking of "persevering in tribulation" (τῇ θλίψει ὑπομένοντες). James 5.11 counts as blessed "those who persevered" (τοὺς ὑπομείναντας). 1 Peter 2.20 commends you if you "persevere" (ὑπομενεῖτε) patiently while suffering for doing what is right. The "one who perseveres to the end" in Mark 13.13b is, to my mind, the same kind of person as the ones described in these verses; he/she is one who keeps doing good even under the stress of what is happening around him/her.

Obviously, the primary motifs of this entire chapter seem to come from Daniel, and these two verses are probably no exception:

Daniel 12.1: 1 "Now at that time Michael, the great prince who stands guard over the sons of your people, will arise. And there will be a time of distress such as never occurred since there was a nation until that time; and at that time your people will be rescued [יִמָּלֵט, LXX ὑψωθήσεται, Theodotion σωθήσεται], everyone who is found written in the book. 2 Many of those who sleep in the dust of the ground will awake, these to everlasting life, but the others to disgrace and everlasting contempt."

The ones written in the book in Daniel 12.1 are a good match for the elect in Mark 13.20. I had also put forth the story of Lot as a secondary parallel, and the Hebrew word for "rescued" in Daniel 12.1 is also used in Genesis in a very appropriate context:

Genesis 19.17: 17 When they had brought them outside, one said, "Escape for your life! Do not look behind you, and do not stay anywhere in the valley; escape [הִמָּלֵט = rescue yourself, LXX σῴζου!] to the mountains, or you will be swept away."

The LXX has the same Greek word as is found in Mark 13.20 for being saved.

I had suggested that the elect fill the same role in Mark 13.20 as the righteous fill in Genesis 18.26; I still subscribe to this suggestion, but was not depending upon Mark having actually consulted the Lot cycle. Now I think that he (or somebody) possibly did. The motif of not going back in Mark 13.16 may owe itself partly to Lot's wife turning around and being turned to salt. The motif of being saved/rescued above is another possible connection. And 1 Enoch, in which "the elect" are discussed many, many times, also often equates the elect and the righteous explicitly, right from its very first verse:

1 Enoch 1.1 (Greek from codex Panopolitanus): 1 Λόγος εὐλογίας Ἑνώχ, καθὼς εὐλόγησεν ἐκλεκτοὺς, δικαίους οἵτινες ἔσονται εἰς ἡμέραν ἀνάγκης ἐξᾶραι πάντας τοὺς ἐχθρούς, καὶ σωθήσονται δίκαιοι. / 1 A word of the blessed Enoch, just as he blessed the elect, the righteous who will be [alive] on the day of struggle as all the enemies are to be taken away, and the righteous will be saved.

And notice again the theme of salvation. The distance between one being physically saved in the tribulation period and one being eschatologically saved once the son of man arrives seems to me to be paper thin in Mark 13. God preserving the life of an elect person is two things at once: it is keeping him/her physically alive (by cutting short the tribulation period which threatens to wipe out "all flesh") and it is also keeping him/her alive at the coming of the son of man, instead of damning him. It is a holistic approach which Paul seemingly also takes:

1 Thessalonians 5.23: 23 Now may the God of peace Himself sanctify you entirely; and may your spirit and soul and body be preserved complete, without blame at the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

I do not have all of this completely worked out in my mind yet, but I do think that to interpret these verses (13.13, 20) without accounting for their scriptural antecedents will be to miss the mark.
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