Why did the Ebionites ''impoverish'' Jesus?

[Giuseppe]

Two possible answers:

1) Because Jesus was really human and historical, and the ebionites were his real and more faithful followers.

2) Because even the ''impoverishment'' of Jesus (his view as a mere prophet), was a particular form of adoration of a mythological being.

[Giuseppe]

The point 2 finds the following justification:

1) Jesus is divine

2) if Jesus is divine, then he is omnipotent

3) if Jesus is omnipotent, then he is free from the Law in any moment (and not only after the his resurrection)

4) if Jesus is free from the Law, then he is enemy of the god who gave the Law

5) the ebionites adored the god who gave the Law

6) so they couldn't accept a Jesus enemy of the god of the Jews

7) so they had to brandish a Jesus Servant of the Law

8) so they had "to impoverish" Jesus by reducing him to a mere man who realized the Law.

9) so Jesus was euhemerized (according to the full and more "classical" sense of the term "euhemerization") by the ebionites

COROLLARY:

For the proto-catholics, Jesus had to be both:

1) divine and omnipotent (to satisfy the gnostics)

And

2) man and servant of the Law (to satisfy the ebionites)

And the Gospel of Matthew was the answer.

So the catalyst for the birth of ebionitism was the evolution of the original pauline Christians in GNOSTIC Christians.

[Giuseppe]

Moral of the fable: the specific ebionite "adoration" of Jesus is found precisely in the "divine" ability of the man Jesus of being a man (the "unique and only man") who realized fully the Law. ("Unique" even when he is described as a moral example for the ebionites) Therefore proving, against Paul, that the Law is not a curse. That it's "possible" to be both man and realize fully the Law.