He was assigned a grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death, though he had done no violence, nor was any deceit in his mouth
If his grave was ''with the wicked'', then the ''rich'' (Joseph of Arimathea) has to be a ''wicked'' by definition (of midrash).
But we are said that Joseph was a true disciple of Jesus where the other disciples failed.
Now, if, as I think, ''Matthew'' and ''Arimathea'' share partially the same meaning (''Ideal Disciple'') in both 'Joseph from Arimathea'' and ''the Gospel of Matthew'', and since Matthew is a Jewish-Christian (or proto-Catholic) Gospel, could the original narrative in Mark be hostile to Joseph from Arimathea ?
According to the Gnostics, who buries (or who sows) is always a wicked, an archontic person, or the same Demiurge.