Why ''Luke'' makes Theudas precede Judas: an hypothesis

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Giuseppe
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Re: Why ''Luke'' makes Theudas precede Judas: an hypothesis

Post by Giuseppe »

Secret Alias wrote: Wed Apr 11, 2018 7:53 am It makes perfect sense for 'like Moses' to be Joshua because the Pentateuch seems to set things up for Joshua. It's not that controversial. A cosmic Joshua is another matter.
Dr. Detering seems to have proved that there was some link between Moses (adored by the Terapeuti as a spiritual crosser) and Joshua (adored by the Perati as a spiritual crosser). In both the cases, Moses and Joshua are seen as cosmic symbols or something of similar (surely not mere men).
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
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Re: Why ''Luke'' makes Theudas precede Judas: an hypothesis

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Dr. Detering seems to have proved that there was some link between Moses (adored by the Terapeuti as a spiritual crosser) and Joshua (adored by the Perati as a spiritual crosser)
What kind of verkakte statement is "Dr. So and So seems to have proved there was some kind of ..." It sounds like something my aunt would say after watching an episode of Dr Oz. "It seems as if some kind of eternal life is possible through some kind of plant you can buy on Dr Oz's website." The bottom line is that you don't seem to understand what Detering is saying so why bring it up?
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
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Giuseppe
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Re: Why ''Luke'' makes Theudas precede Judas: an hypothesis

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Surely I should still read the English translation of Detering's article (that is in German). But from the few things I have read until now, it seems to be really promising the comparison (made by him) between a crosser Moses (and relative sect) and a crosser Joshua (and relative sects). Hardly the common view of a spiritual hero as a ''crosser'' (simbolically: of the sin and death) in both the cases is a coincidence.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
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Re: Why ''Luke'' makes Theudas precede Judas: an hypothesis

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Sounds stupid to me
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
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Re: Why ''Luke'' makes Theudas precede Judas: an hypothesis

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I don't have the book handy at the moment, but if I recall correctly Mason suggests in Josephus and the New Testament that Luke/Acts got the information about Theudas and Judas from a cursory reading of Ant. 20.5.1-2, which mentions Theudas in section 1 and then Judas in section 2, and that's always worked for me.

Ant. 20.5.1-2:
Now it came to pass, while Fadus was procurator of Judea, that a certain magician, whose name was Theudas, persuaded a great part of the people to take their effects with them, and follow him to the river Jordan; for he told them he was a prophet, and that he would, by his own command, divide the river, and afford them an easy passage over it; and many were deluded by his words. However, Fadus did not permit them to make any advantage of his wild attempt, but sent a troop of horsemen out against them; who, falling upon them unexpectedly, slew many of them, and took many of them alive. They also took Theudas alive, and cut off his head, and carried it to Jerusalem. This was what befell the Jews in the time of Cuspius Fadus's government.

Then came Tiberius Alexander as successor to Fadus; he was the son of Alexander the alabarch of Alexandria, which Alexander was a principal person among all his contemporaries, both for his family and wealth: he was also more eminent for his piety than this his son Alexander, for he did not continue in the religion of his country. Under these procurators that great famine happened in Judea, in which queen Helena bought corn in Egypt at a great expense, and distributed it to those that were in want, as I have related already. And besides this, the sons of Judas of Galilee were now slain; I mean of that Judas who caused the people to revolt, when Cyrenius came to take an account of the estates of the Jews, as we have showed in a foregoing book. The names of those sons were James and Simon, whom Alexander commanded to be crucified.
Acts 5:36-37:
Some time ago Theudas appeared, claiming to be somebody, and about four hundred men rallied to him. He was killed, all his followers were dispersed, and it all came to nothing. After him, Judas the Galilean appeared in the days of the census and led a band of people in revolt. He too was killed, and all his followers were scattered
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Re: Why ''Luke'' makes Theudas precede Judas: an hypothesis

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John2 wrote: Wed Apr 11, 2018 1:52 pmI don't have the book handy at the moment, but if I recall correctly Mason suggests in Josephus and the New Testament that Luke/Acts got the information about Theudas and Judas from a cursory reading of Ant. 20.5.1-2, which mentions Theudas in section 1 and then Judas in section 2, and that's always worked for me.
Same here.
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Re: Why ''Luke'' makes Theudas precede Judas: an hypothesis

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The translators' text incorrectly makes Theudas to precede Judas, not Luke. Read Acts 5:33 ' ..after Judas ... in these days we have Theudas....'
Luke didn't render the text anachronistic. With historical and scriptural knowledge you can apply the correct context.

Cross reference precedent: 1 Corinthians 15:7.

See the Gospel According to the Hebrews where Jesus was seen second by James after he was seen first by Joseph of Arimathaea, immediately after the resurrection. In 1 Corinthians 15 Jesus was seen by the others 'after that he was seen of James'.
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Re: Why ''Luke'' makes Theudas precede Judas: an hypothesis

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Trees of Life wrote: Sun Apr 29, 2018 11:08 am The translators' text incorrectly makes Theudas to precede Judas, not Luke. Read Acts 5:33 ' ..after Judas ... in these days we have Theudas....'
Luke didn't render the text anachronistic. With historical and scriptural knowledge you can apply the correct context.
Come:

Acts 5.34: 34 But a certain Pharisee named Gamaliel, a teacher of the Law, respected by all the people, stood up in the Council and gave orders to put the men outside for a short time. 35 And he said to them, "Men of Israel, take care what you propose to do with these men. 36 For some time ago [πρὸ γὰρ τούτων τῶν ἡμερῶν] Theudas rose up, claiming to be somebody; and a group of about four hundred men joined up with him. And he was slain; and all who followed him were dispersed and came to nothing. 37 After this man [μετὰ τοῦτον, μετὰ + accusative] Judas of Galilee rose up in the days of the census, and drew away some people after him, he too perished, and all those who followed him were scattered."

See the Gospel According to the Hebrews where Jesus was seen second by James after he was seen first by Joseph of Arimathaea, immediately after the resurrection. In 1 Corinthians 15 Jesus was seen by the others 'after that he was seen of James'.
What is the reference for an appearance to Joseph of Arimathaea in the gospel according to the Hebrews?
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Re: Why ''Luke'' makes Theudas precede Judas: an hypothesis

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Ben C. Smith wrote: Sun Apr 29, 2018 11:19 am
Trees of Life wrote: Sun Apr 29, 2018 11:08 am The translators' text incorrectly makes Theudas to precede Judas, not Luke. Read Acts 5:33 ' ..after Judas ... in these days we have Theudas....'
Luke didn't render the text anachronistic. With historical and scriptural knowledge you can apply the correct context.
Come:

Acts 5.34: 34 But a certain Pharisee named Gamaliel, a teacher of the Law, respected by all the people, stood up in the Council and gave orders to put the men outside for a short time. 35 And he said to them, "Men of Israel, take care what you propose to do with these men. 36 For some time ago [πρὸ γὰρ τούτων τῶν ἡμερῶν] Theudas rose up, claiming to be somebody; and a group of about four hundred men joined up with him. And he was slain; and all who followed him were dispersed and came to nothing. 37 After this man [μετὰ τοῦτον, μετὰ + accusative] Judas of Galilee rose up in the days of the census, and drew away some people after him, he too perished, and all those who followed him were scattered."

See the Gospel According to the Hebrews where Jesus was seen second by James after he was seen first by Joseph of Arimathaea, immediately after the resurrection. In 1 Corinthians 15 Jesus was seen by the others 'after that he was seen of James'.
What is the reference for an appearance to Joseph of Arimathaea in the gospel according to the Hebrews?
The appearance is discerned by reading the text of the Gospel according to the Hebrews and cross referencing sacred scriptures and the archived Report of Pilate. Gospel according to the Hebrews: 'Now the Lord had given the cloth to the servant of the priest'. He then appeared to James the Just.

The Acts of Pilate: Jesus to Joseph of Arimathaea at midnight, Sunday: 'on whose face you placed a cloth'. Jesus appeared first to Joseph of Arimathaea who had prepared his body. He then appeared to James the Just in order to enable him to break his fast.
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Re: Why ''Luke'' makes Theudas precede Judas: an hypothesis

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Trees of Life wrote: Sun Apr 29, 2018 6:15 pm
Ben C. Smith wrote: Sun Apr 29, 2018 11:19 am
Trees of Life wrote: Sun Apr 29, 2018 11:08 am The translators' text incorrectly makes Theudas to precede Judas, not Luke. Read Acts 5:33 ' ..after Judas ... in these days we have Theudas....'
Luke didn't render the text anachronistic. With historical and scriptural knowledge you can apply the correct context.
Come:

Acts 5.34: 34 But a certain Pharisee named Gamaliel, a teacher of the Law, respected by all the people, stood up in the Council and gave orders to put the men outside for a short time. 35 And he said to them, "Men of Israel, take care what you propose to do with these men. 36 For some time ago [πρὸ γὰρ τούτων τῶν ἡμερῶν] Theudas rose up, claiming to be somebody; and a group of about four hundred men joined up with him. And he was slain; and all who followed him were dispersed and came to nothing. 37 After this man [μετὰ τοῦτον, μετὰ + accusative] Judas of Galilee rose up in the days of the census, and drew away some people after him, he too perished, and all those who followed him were scattered."

See the Gospel According to the Hebrews where Jesus was seen second by James after he was seen first by Joseph of Arimathaea, immediately after the resurrection. In 1 Corinthians 15 Jesus was seen by the others 'after that he was seen of James'.
What is the reference for an appearance to Joseph of Arimathaea in the gospel according to the Hebrews?
The appearance is discerned by reading the text of the Gospel according to the Hebrews and cross referencing sacred scriptures and the archived Report of Pilate. Gospel according to the Hebrews: 'Now the Lord had given the cloth to the servant of the priest'. He then appeared to James the Just.

The Acts of Pilate: Jesus to Joseph of Arimathaea at midnight, Sunday: 'on whose face you placed a cloth'. Jesus appeared first to Joseph of Arimathaea who had prepared his body. He then appeared to James the Just in order to enable him to break his fast.
So the datum is not from the gospel according to the Hebrews, but rather from an interpretation of a passage in the Acts of Pilate. Got it.
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