If the patriarch Joseph = Joseph of Arimathea then 'Egypt' = the empty tomb

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If the patriarch Joseph = Joseph of Arimathea then 'Egypt' = the empty tomb

Post by Giuseppe » Fri Jun 08, 2018 8:35 am

Exodus 13:19 :

19 Moses took the bones of Joseph with him because Joseph had made the Israelites swear an oath. He had said, “God will surely come to your aid, and then you must carry my bones up with you from this place.”

Also Jesus had to be buried among the evildoers as per scripturam, whereas Joseph had to be buried in Israel in virtue of the his oath.

But who (in Exodus) is the buried person [=the Patriarch Joseph] becomes in Mark the person who buries [=Joseph from Arimathea].

And Richard Carrier had already noted the possible midrashical source behind ''Joseph of Arimathea'':
Jesus’ father is not named as Joseph until the later Gospels of Matthew and Luke, but MacDonald (2000:155) argues, “Mark surely could have known this tradition.” Another possibility for the name, noted by Carrier (pers. comm.) is a parallel with Joseph the Patriarch who in Gen. 40:4-6 asks Pharaoh for permission to bury Jacob (symbolizing Israel) in a cave tomb.

https://adversusapologetica.files.wordp ... s-tomb.pdf

The patriarch Joseph is buried the first time in Egypt, and the second time in Israel.

Jesus Nazarene is buried the first time in the Empty Tomb, and then he appears again in the Galilee.

So the Empty Tomb may be allegory of the same ''Egypt''.

But then who is interested only about the physical body of Jesus (the body who is buried in the Empty Tomb/''Egypt'') is the enemy of who wants that the body appears again in the Galilee/''Israel'':

therefore the ''women'' are the enemy of ''Moses'': the Egyptians and Pharao.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.

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