PhilosopherJay wrote:Hi All,
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9. The writer says explicitly in 1. Corinthians 7. "It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with women." Here is a clear statement against heterosexuality. Paul never says that it is good for a man not to have sexual relations with men. If he felt that all sexual relations were bad, why did he not say so? As it is, he condemns only heterosexual relations.
10. In 1. Corinthians 7, he says, "6Now as a concession, not a command, I say this 7I wish that all were as I myself am. But each has his own gift from God, one of one kind and one of another." By "as myself am" The writer either means that he is homosexual or he abstains from sex. The text does not tell us which. Why is Paul being precocious about his sexuality or lack thereof?
Warmly,
Jay Raskin
Paul is beginning the letter with a quotation from the Corinthians that he intends to contradict: the Corinthian have said ‘‘it is well for a man not to touch a woman." And Paul is replying to them.
Paul is quoting the Corinthians when he writes ‘‘it is well for a man not to touch a woman”
1Corinthians
III. Answers to the Corinthians’ Questions
A. Marriage and Virginity
Chapter 7
Advice to the Married
7Now concerning the matters about which you wrote: ‘It is well for a man not to touch a woman.”(1)
1-It seems that some Christians in Corinth were advocating asceticism in sexual matters...
Taken from the Catholic Study Bible
From the Oxford Bible
Note 1 in the New Oxford Annotated Bible
1-Paul urges continuing marital relations rather than sexual abstinence...
The Jewish Annotated New Testament
Note 1. Sexuality in Marriage
“It is well ...” another Corinthian slogan...