Who axed Acts 8:37?

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
Maestroh
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Re: Who axed Acts 8:37?

Post by Maestroh » Sat Oct 20, 2018 12:42 pm

Ulan wrote:
Sat Oct 20, 2018 10:58 am
Steven Avery wrote:
Sat Oct 20, 2018 10:20 am
Jerome said specifically that the eunuch believed and was baptised...
Yeah, we already went over all of this. Jerome didn't produce the Acts translation, so it doesn't matter what he quotes from the Old Latin version, from which we know that it had the verse.

The Oxford NT uses nearly all old Vulgate manuscripts that we have, so there isn't really anything you have in your hand against it. The stuff talking about "the majority of manuscripts" makes as little sense as when you make the same remark about Greek manuscripts. It's a measure that doesn't matter, because the later manuscripts (the "many") are at the end of a development process.

I'm not even sure why all of this would matter to the case for or against Acts 8:37. It doesn't. The important switch lies somewhere at the root between the Greek Western (which lies at the root of the Old Latin version) and the Alexandrian (which lies at the root of the Vulgate) text types. Nobody knows anything about that time when they diverged.
Particularly when Avery himself rejects the majority of Greek manuscripts at 1 John 5:7.

The Greek majority is nothing but a deceptive argument he can throw out - since he himself doesn't even believe in it.

Steven Avery
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Re: Who axed Acts 8:37?

Post by Steven Avery » Sun Oct 21, 2018 8:28 am

Hi Ulan,

If I remember right, Jerome said he translated the full New Testament.
If so, why not simply accept his words?
Who else claimed to do the books beyond the Gospels?

As for the Oxford NT, how does its count of mss split?
Without that info, there is little value in the reference.

And I realize you ignore the genealogical element of textual transmission, what were the ancestors of 1,000 mss? So we can put that aside.

Steven Avery
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Re: Who axed Acts 8:37?

Post by Steven Avery » Mon Oct 22, 2018 5:20 am

Omitting a phrase or verse from a textline is easy. Look at 1 John 2:23b as an example.

1 John 2:23 (AV)
Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father:
(but) he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also.

One of the (many) key weaknesses of textual criticism today is assuming that theories of addition and omission are symmetrical in analysis. In fact, omissions are often quite easy, while conjectured additions have to jump over a high bar of difficulty.

Even worse is the acceprance of lectio brevior as the preferential position, long shown to be a false paradigm.

Steven

perseusomega9
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Re: Who axed Acts 8:37?

Post by perseusomega9 » Mon Oct 22, 2018 6:14 am

The key weakness of textual criticism using it to entrench one's position by using church edited texts that date to over a century or more from the purported composition date.

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rakovsky
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Re: Who axed Acts 8:37?

Post by rakovsky » Thu Oct 25, 2018 10:50 am

Ben C. Smith wrote:
Wed Aug 29, 2018 3:25 pm
The verse appears in the Old Latin, one of the Syriacs, the Vulgate, and one of the Coptics.
The Church Slavonic lectionary, as well as the 20th century Russian Orthodox Church's modern Russian language bible contains it. here it is in Church Slavonic:
See: "Деяния святых Апостолов, зачало 20"
https://azbyka.ru/bogosluzhenie/lekcion ... s.shtml#1a

The relevance is that the Russian Church bases its readings on the Greek Church's centuries-old practice.

My research on the prophecies of the Messiah's resurrection: http://rakovskii.livejournal.com

andrewcriddle
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Re: Who axed Acts 8:37?

Post by andrewcriddle » Sat Oct 27, 2018 12:51 am

rakovsky wrote:
Thu Oct 25, 2018 10:50 am
Ben C. Smith wrote:
Wed Aug 29, 2018 3:25 pm
The verse appears in the Old Latin, one of the Syriacs, the Vulgate, and one of the Coptics.
The Church Slavonic lectionary, as well as the 20th century Russian Orthodox Church's modern Russian language bible contains it. here it is in Church Slavonic:
See: "Деяния святых Апостолов, зачало 20"
https://azbyka.ru/bogosluzhenie/lekcion ... s.shtml#1a

The relevance is that the Russian Church bases its readings on the Greek Church's centuries-old practice.
There is a clear 'Western' element in the Slavonic NT text.
The explanation is unclear.
However, we do know that in early Medieval times the Slavonic church used Latin (based on some form of the Vulgate) as well as Slavonic in worship.

Andrew Criddle

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