Why JUST Joseph of Arimathea was expecting the kingdom of god

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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Giuseppe
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Why JUST Joseph of Arimathea was expecting the kingdom of god

Post by Giuseppe » Tue Sep 04, 2018 7:41 pm

The more simple explanation of the fact that just the man who buried Jesus was an ardent apocalypticist is that that man, being the 'best disciple' of Christ (coming from "aristos-matthew's-land"), had learned the real separationist meaning of the words of Christ in 14:62:

“I am,” said Jesus. “And you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven.”

That prophecy is fulfilled from that precise moment and it is similar to another prophecy ("Truly, I say to you, there are some standing here who will not taste death until they see the kingdom of God after it has come with power") of Jesus addressed to disciples, and who if not the Best Disciple (Joseph "from Arimathea") could have a so strong apocalypticist faith in the coming of the kingdom during his same life?

But then if that prophecy is fulfilled from that precise moment, the divine Christ has already abandoned from that precise moment the body of Jesus, and therefore it is the Christ (not Jesus) who is already seen from that moment (by who has "eyes to see" among the audience of Jesus in that precise moment: the only Joseph of Arimathea, not coincidentially a PHARISEE) returned to his original divine state:
"sitting at the right hand of the Mighty One and coming on the clouds of heaven".
Just since he knows that the Christ, once abandoned Jesus in Mark 14:62, is already coming down on the clouds of heaven, then Joseph buried Jesus to give him a second birth in view of the coming general Resurrection of the Dead.

This interpretation is so simple that it explains alone:

1) why Joseph is pharisee
2) why Joseph comes from Arimathea
3) why the Generation-Prophecy is addressed to only disciples
4) why the first readers of Mark were separationists according to Irenaeus
5) why Joseph is expecting the kingdom
6) why Jesus is beaten only after that Christ has abandoned him in 14:62.
7) why what happens after 14:62 and before the burial there are two/three episodes (Barabbas, the Cyrenaic, the two robbers) designed to secure the readers that the man Jesus was the Christ even after 14:62, against the original separationism of proto-Mark.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.

andrewcriddle
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Re: Why JUST Joseph of Arimathea was expecting the kingdom of god

Post by andrewcriddle » Wed Sep 05, 2018 9:57 pm

It is never explicitly stated in the NT that Joseph of Arimathea was a Pharisee.


Andrew Criddle

Giuseppe
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Location: Vicenza (Italy)

Re: Why JUST Joseph of Arimathea was expecting the kingdom of god

Post by Giuseppe » Wed Sep 05, 2018 11:13 pm

andrewcriddle wrote:
Wed Sep 05, 2018 9:57 pm
It is never explicitly stated in the NT that Joseph of Arimathea was a Pharisee.
It changes little on my argument. I meant 'sinedrite'.

Here the point is made even more clear that Joseph was surely there among the sinedrites who hear Jesus say the words of Mark 14:62:
Joseph of Arimathea, a prominent member of the Council, who was himself waiting for the kingdom of God, went boldly to Pilate and asked for Jesus’ body.

(Mark 15:43)

Hence he realized, only among all, that the divine Christ had abandoned Jesus just before that Jesus was beaten, and therefore he will bury the body of Jesus, awaiting his coming resurrection when the divine Christ will descend on the clouds of heaven.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.

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