Could Christians Have Used the Title 'Son of Man' in a Way Independent of Daniel's Expectation?

Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
Secret Alias
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Re: Could Christians Have Used the Title 'Son of Man' in a Way Independent of Daniel's Expectation?

Post by Secret Alias »

And there does seem to be some overlap between 'strong man' and 'thief' in Aramaic - http://cal.huc.edu/showjastrow.php?page=257
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
― Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra, Don Quixote
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Giuseppe
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Re: Could Christians Have Used the Title 'Son of Man' in a Way Independent of Daniel's Expectation?

Post by Giuseppe »

Secret Alias wrote: Sat Sep 22, 2018 7:47 am I think the idea that Marcion hated the Son of Man is silly.
I should start to consider the idea that Marcion hated the Son of Man more seriously, instead.

Thank you to open to my fantasy new ways to go. I will explore that idea, really.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
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Giuseppe
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Re: Could Christians Have Used the Title 'Son of Man' in a Way Independent of Daniel's Expectation?

Post by Giuseppe »

Secret Alias wrote: Sat Sep 22, 2018 7:49 am And there does seem to be some overlap between 'strong man' and 'thief' in Aramaic - http://cal.huc.edu/showjastrow.php?page=257
Wonderful! I have argued somewhere in this forum that the 'strong man' was the same demiurge, and the divine Christ who imprisons him.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.
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