Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
1 post • Page 1 of 1
https://vridar.org/2018/10/13/jesus-fro ... n-a-cross/
It is evident that God (the creator) could curse only one who was his enemy.
But if the earliest evangelist was a Judaizer ( as I suspect he was), then why did he put a so strong contrast between his God (YHWH) and the crucified man?
An answer may be that he didn't realize the reason, and a partial evidence of the his ignorance is that he inserted the reference to Elijah (“he is calling Elijah”) to explain what even him didn't realize.
But an alternative answer is that he wanted to eclipse a previous myth where the crucifier was not Pilate and not the Jews, but the same Creator.
Hence, if even Jesus (the Judaized Jesus) is surprised from the apparent hatred of the creator against him, then the reader could better accept the scandal of a Roman crucifixion.
Evidence of the identity of the crucifier with the same Creator is in Justin, Apology 1:60:
who is for Plato “the power next to the first God” if not the Demiurge? And who is who crucified the Demiurge Jesus in the original myth, if not the same Creator before that he was identified with Jesus?
Hence we have the following evolution:
1) The Serpent = Jesus, the Demiurge is the Creator
2) the Demiurge is Jesus, the Serpent is Satan
3) the Son of Demiurge is Jesus, the Serpent is Satan.
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.