I'm reading the book of the mythicist Marc Stéphane. — La passion de Jésus (see Vridar's review here), in particular p. 207, where the author remembers one of the Couchoud's reasons to believe why the reading
...is more older than the current version:
Now my free thoughts from this evidence are: if "Mark", by this episode, was securing the readers that Jesus wasn't disappeared on the cross, then was he doing the bold claim that Jesus was even "cursed" by god in this point, and not even simply "ignored"?
The point of Mark is that God himself wanted the death of Jesus on the cross. Who denies the reality of the death is denying the same Will of God.
Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.