Why Golgotha? Because of Oseah 9:15

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Giuseppe
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Joined: Mon Apr 27, 2015 5:37 am
Location: Italy

Why Golgotha? Because of Oseah 9:15

Post by Giuseppe » Tue Feb 05, 2019 7:56 am

Oseah 9.15 is already surely used by “Mark” (author) for the Temple episode (particularly for the deliberate reference to the Zealots, see below):

“Because of all their wickedness in Gilgal,
I hated them there.
Because of their sinful deeds,
I will drive them out of my house.
I will no longer love them;
all their leaders are rebellious.


And he taught, saying unto them, Is it not written, My house shall be called of all nations the house of prayer? but ye have made it a den of thieves

17 καὶ ἐδίδασκεν καὶ ἔλεγεν αὐτοῖς, Οὐ γέγραπται ὅτι ῾Ο οἶκός μου οἶκος προσευχῆς κληϑήσεται πᾶσιν τοῖς ἔϑνεσιν;ὑμεῖς δὲ πεποιήκατε αὐτὸν σπήλαιον λῃστῶν.

(Mark 11:17)

So it is no coincidence that Golgotha is at Jerusalem, since just there “all their wickedness” was shown. What was more an example of wickedness than killing Jesus?
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.

Giuseppe
Posts: 5537
Joined: Mon Apr 27, 2015 5:37 am
Location: Italy

Re: Why Golgotha? Because of Oseah 9:15

Post by Giuseppe » Tue Feb 05, 2019 8:01 am

I note in particular the strict identity between the place where Jesus was crucified (Golgotha ~ Gilgal) and the “my house” (the Temple of Jerusalem). This is a typical move by a Judaizer as “Mark”. In the Gnostic myth the Son (=Serpent of Genesis) was killed by the demiurge in (view of) the creation of the demiurge (not the his world).

Now, by the identity Gilgal = Golgotha, “Mark” is saying that the his Jesus, the Jewish Messiah, was killed in the his same world, the same city and the same creation of the his father, the demiurge (as supreme god, for the Judaizers).
Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.

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