Often we hear that the presence of prostitutes between the ancestors of Jesus is sign of the magnanimity of the Christians, et similia.
Really, I think that their presence is justified by the need to contrast the Gnostic rumors about Jesus being descended in the OT past in the form of any negative anti-nomian OT character: the Serpent and Cain in primis. Without to talk the Gnostic parentage of Jesus (Sabaoth) with the ''prostitute'' Sophia (''prostitute'' as lost for a time in the demiurgical creation).
So the Judaizer could say: yes, Jesus had a negative reputation between the his oldest forms, but that reputation derived from banal OT prostitutes. Nothing of serious.
Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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Nihil enim in speciem fallacius est quam prava religio. -Liv. xxxix. 16.