The bitter pill goes down more easily once you learn that not only did Josephus declare Titus’ father Vespasian (who conducted the Jewish War until he handed it over to Titus to complete) as the prophesied Jewish Messiah, but that so did Rabbi Johanon ben Zakkai! And Romans Tacitus and Suetonius did, too! As scripture had said, the Messiah had come out of the East to rule the nations. Never said he was Jewish. (Similarly, seventh-century Jews were willing to ally themselves with proto-Islamic (“Hagarite”) Arabs to follow Umar al-Faruq as the Messiah, though he was an Arab, not a Jew.) Titus inherited his father’s Messianic status, so both were deemed fulfillments of Messianic prophecy.
Again, this scenario may seem completely outlandish, but it is not. Alexander the Great, having conquered Egypt, tried to make himself palatable to his new subjects by claiming he was the son of Zeus-Amun
Again, this scenario may seem completely outlandish, but it is not. Alexander the Great, having conquered Egypt, tried to make himself palatable to his new subjects by claiming he was the son of Zeus-Amun
https://www.creatingchrist.com/post/rob ... ing-christ
While I don't believe a word of a Roman ingerence of the Atwillian kind, I believe that a quasi identical operation was made by "Mark": he started from the assumption that the Christ had to be unknown, not really Jewish, not even really of this world. Even when Mark wanted to give him a face and an entire life on earth. It was Josephus who introduced the trend, first, by calling "Messiah" the Roman emperor. Is a strange propaganda, to exalt the Emperor as Christ and, in the same time, to debase the Christ as a foreign and alien figure. The foreigness of the Christ was not a Markan invention. Mark inherited it from Josephian propaganda.