I am reading an argument (by Arthur Drews) for scribal accidental interpolation in this point in Mark. The original reading would be found partly in Matthew 19:17:
Since the original answer was about what was good doing:
"A thing" (neuter) was translated as "one" (male gender) and it moved the scribe to ask who could be called good. So the scribal note in the margin of text ("god is only good") was inserted accidentally in the text as it is now in Mark.
Discussion about the New Testament, apocrypha, gnostics, church fathers, Christian origins, historical Jesus or otherwise, etc.
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