On the link between Capernaum and John the Baptist

[Giuseppe]

In short, the author of the Earliest Gospel invented a Jesus descended on the material body of a seditionist to make more and more clear two facts:

• 1) the conformity to Ascension of Isaiah (need of the appearance as an evil being before other evil beings, which means: need of a seditionist).

• 2) a complete defamation of the Pillars: they followed the Son not because they knew the Son, but because they thought that they were following their original master and now risen: the seditionist John the Baptist.

The great error of the various Brandon, etc, is to take verbatim these traces of sedition in the Gospels, when really these traces were deliberate insofar Jesus had to be taken for a seditionist - for John the Baptist redivivus - in the eyes of the his followers.
Only so Jesus could deceive the archons.

[Giuseppe]

Before the euhemerization, the archons thought that Jesus was merely a demon intruder in their archontic territory (evidence: Ascension of Isaiah).

In the Earliest Gospel, the human kings (Herod in primis) thought that Jesus was merely John redivivus, a potential seditionist redivivus, being Jesus descended effectively on John (to use John and the his fame as coverage).

In our Mark, the Christ is made descending not more directly on John and in the Hades ("Capernaum"), but on a mere man Jesus in the wilderness (read again and again here: "Capernaum") to be baptized (remember what is Capernaum in Josephus) by John the Baptist. So the goal of "Mark", against the Earliest Gospel, is to insist that Jesus is the Jewish Christ. That John was distinct from him and he was still alive when Jesus appeared before him. That Barabbas was a mere killer freed by Pilate, etc.

You would call it: judaization of a previous marcionite Gospel.

[Giuseppe]

Capernaum means "village of Nahum".

Nahum means "comforter" in Hebrew, from the root נָחַם (nacham).

Now, what does nacham mean, too?

1. to be sorry, console oneself, repent, regret, comfort, be comforted
a. (Niphal)
1. to be sorry, be moved to pity, have compassion
2. to be sorry, rue, suffer grief, repent
3. to comfort oneself, be comforted
4. to comfort oneself, ease oneself
b. (Piel) to comfort, console
c. (Pual) to be comforted, be consoled
d. (Hithpael)
1. to be sorry, have compassion
2. to rue, repent of
3. to comfort oneself, be comforted
4. to ease oneself

https://bible.knowing-jesus.com/strongs/H5162


So nacham means also "who does repentance".

Is only a coincidence the fact that the marcionite Christ descended just on the place where we have at work the first of the "repenters", i.e. who preached the act par excellence of repentance, John the Baptist?

Exodus 32:14

And Yahweh relented of the evil which he thought to do to his people.

[Giuseppe]

In the Septuaginta the word nacham is usually translated as "metanoia".
https://www.hebrew4christians.com/Holid ... huvah.html

Which term is more connected with the baptism by John?

[Giuseppe]

In the Septuaginta, metanoia is used to translate both the sense of “remorse” (Hebrew nacham) and of “conversion”...
...
In the New Testament, the sense of conversion is associated with the apocalyptic preaching of both John the Baptist and Jesus...

https://books.google.it/books?id=7vmADw ... am&f=false

[Giuseppe]

And the "place of remorse" par excellence is surely the Hades or Sheol (see the rich of Lazarus, for example, who is surely full of remorse for the his sins in life). The marcionite Christ is said to go to Hell. The his meeting with John in "prison" (really, in Sheol) provoked the question by John: "are you the one who has to come, or should we wait another Christ?"

[Charles Wilson]

John is from the Mishmarot Group Bilgah which has committed an offense against the Priesthood ( http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/3298-bilgah ). The created "Jesus" character is a rewrite of a Priest of Immer and therefore "follows" Bilgah but ranks ahead of Bilgah because of Bilgah's Offense.

The Mishmarot Priesthood was assigned Settlements in Galilee depending on which Group they were in:

Immer was assigned Jabnit, just down the street from Meiron which was assigned to Jehoiarib.
Bilgah was assigned to Ma'ariyah (Leibner, ...Settlements in Galilee....

Before you multiply entities, at least look on the ground for other possibilities. YMMV, but it ain't me what's placin' them artifacts on the ground over there.

CW

[Giuseppe]

Before you multiply entities, at least look on the ground for other possibilities.

Excuse me, Charles, but I consider a total idiocy these your words in this thread. It is here where you betray yourself as a sincere - the more sincere, in my view - historicist of the forum (and I use the term as an insult, at least here). You love John the Baptist, you see him as the magical "hero" eclipsed deliberately by presumed evil conspirers, etc, etc.

That is all bullshit. I cannot avoid the impression that you are “dirtying” this thread.


What I am claiming in this thread is that Jesus (a mythological entity) was made descended in the appearance (or in the possession) of a John redivivus, not because a historical John was connected someway with the early Christians, but because the figure of a potential seditionist is the more probable coverage behind which the Son could disguise himself in the eyes of the rulers of this world (the archons).

Once Jesus was euhemerized as "John" redivivus, then the next step was immediate: John was made the his mere precursor, Barabbas (the real mythological Jesus disguised as "John") was reduced to a mere prisoner released by Pilate, and Jesus was definitely spoiled of any mythological feature.

[Giuseppe]

Think about this in this way: a perfect spiritual being has to empty himself. The kenosis is not complete until it doesn't become also a moral kenosis. The Son has to empty entirely himself by becoming a demon (if he has to hide himself in the lower heavens, and the evidence of this is Ascension of Isaiah), and this emptying is already a moral kenosis, since a demon is an evil entity by definition.

So the god Jesus has to become the criminal Barabbas in order to be crucified on this earth.

Who is probably the Barabbas on which he descended and "entered into" ?

The best candidate is John. But the descent of Christ on John was not an effect of the real historical merit of John (seen someway at a presumed historical origins of Christianity). No, John was chosen as the first human recipient of the spiritual Jesus Christ only in virtue of the his being a mere seditionist, a criminal of the time.

Said in other terms, in the hypothetical absence of John, Jesus could be made descended on another terrorist, as Judas the Galilean or the Egyptian. But I repeat again and again: this was done not as effect of an admiration for the terrorist, but as effect of a moral contempt about him.

[Giuseppe]

As the logic goes, if the Son has to descend today in order to deceive the archons (as per Ascension of Isaiah), then you know already who was the his human coverage:



So no wonder that Capernaum means "place of remorse", the place where John the Baptist worked: Jesus descended on John. He "became flesh" (=he got dirty in John).