klewis wrote: ↑
Tue Apr 23, 2019 1:50 am
The Lamb, synonym to Jesus, which came into the book of Revelation during the Deuteronomy-Joshua draft (DJD). John used the Lamb instead of Joshua, everyplace that he incorporated the DJD and where Jesus is mentioned. As you know Joshua and Jesus are the same word in Greek and Hebrew
However, "Lamb" is not the same word in Hebrew compared with the Greek.
" אמּר " is "Lamb" but also "The 16th Mishmarot Group" from 1 Chronicles 24 ( https://studybible.info/strongs/H563
. Note especially the lack of diacriticals, which was a later invention.). This use of "Lamb" is in Ezra and elsewhere and is given in Strong's
When the Transvaluation has been made and the translation has been given from Hebrew to Greek, "Lamb" does become indeed a synonym for "Jesus". Before this Transvaluation, however, "Lamb" and "The 16th Mishmarot Group" are exact matches. The Story is even placed in context of the Mishmarot Groups:
Mark 1: 7 (RSV):
 And he preached, saying, "After me comes he who is mightier than I, the thong of whose sandals I am not worthy to stoop down and untie.
John 1: 15, 26 - 27, 29 - 30, 35 - 36 (RSV):
 (John bore witness to him, and cried, "This was he of whom I said, `He who comes after me ranks before me, for he was before me.'")
 John answered them, "I baptize with water; but among you stands one whom you do not know,
 even he who comes after me, the thong of whose sandal I am not worthy to untie."
 The next day he saw Jesus coming toward him, and said, "Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!
 This is he of whom I said, `After me comes a man who ranks before me, for he was before me.'
 The next day again John was standing with two of his disciples;
 and he looked at Jesus as he walked, and said, "Behold, the Lamb of God!"
Note the Word-Play: "After me comes a man who ranks before me, for he was before me". Bilgah is the 15th Mishmarot Group and it was deprecated in the eyes of the Priesthood. Immer follows Bilgah and is "...after me..." but Immer "...ranks before me..." since Bilgah has committed a transgression against the Mishmarot Priesthood.
John is of Bilgah, the created "Jesus" character is of Immer. In support of your position, there has to be a transition from the Hebrew Story to the Greek and some "Hebrew Thinker" plausibly could have made a rough translation and passed the results on to someone who has been commissioned to provide the Greek Structure to support the coming savior/god stories. The wretched grammar may be an artifact of this process. When did the very cynical process become "Holy Scripture"?
I cannot state with certainty that you are wrong. It was certainly a "Process". Existence, however, is not a predicate. To state that "Lamb is a synonym for Jesus" is to posit a Jesus that existed, at least in a limited grammatical/logical sense. The Book of John takes this and runs with it, turning a Story of a Passover Slaughter into the story of a savior/god who was the Passover Lamb.
Thus was Human Sacrifice reinstated, something a "Hebrew Thinker" would never allow - unless he was a "Contract Writer" or an observer of the Culture. All, of course, after the Destruction of the Temple, Jerusalem and the Nation of Judea.