Did Origen Use Ammonius's Diatessaron Gospel?

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Did Origen Use Ammonius's Diatessaron Gospel?

Post by Secret Alias »

I have this thesis that Origen DID USE the Diatessaron especially in his Commentary on Matthew. I follow Crawford's idea that the gospel had four columns - Matthew, Mark, Luke and then John. What I want to know is whether the following Greek sentences can be read as if Origen was staring down at four columned work.

Matthew
Then some Pharisees and teachers of the law came to Jesus from Jerusalem and asked, 2 “Why do your disciples break the tradition of the elders? They don’t wash their hands before they eat!” Jesus replied, “And why do you break the command of God for the sake of your tradition?
Mark
The Pharisees and some of the teachers of the law who had come from Jerusalem gathered around Jesus 2 and saw some of his disciples eating food with hands that were defiled, that is, unwashed. 3 The Pharisees and all the Jews do not eat unless they give their hands a ceremonial washing, holding to the tradition of the elders. 4 When they come from the marketplace they do not eat unless they wash. And they observe many other traditions, such as the washing of cups, pitchers and kettles. So the Pharisees and teachers of the law asked Jesus, “Why don’t your disciples live according to the tradition of the elders instead of eating their food with defiled hands?
Example 1:
Ἐμνήσθη καὶ ὁ Μᾶρκος, ἀφ' οὗ χρησίμως παραστησόμεθα περὶ τῆς παραβάσεως τῶν πρεσβυτέρων δοξάντων νίπτειν τὰς χεῖρας, ὅταν ἄρτον ἐσθίωσιν οἱ Ἰουδαῖοι, τὰ κατὰ τὸν τόπον οὕτως ἔχοντα
Translation:
I have thought it right briefly to set forth the prophecy, and to a certain extent elucidate its meaning, seeing that Matthew made mention of it. And Mark also made mention of it, from whom we may usefully set down the following words in the place, with reference to the transgression of the elders who held that it was necessary to wash hands when the Jews ate bread, For the Pharisees and all the Jews, except they wash their hands diligently, eat not, holding the tradition of the elders; and when they come from the market-place except they wash themselves they eat not. And there are some other things which they have received to hold, washings of cups and pots and brazen vessels and couches.
My question - how close can we get to understanding Origen's words as pertaining to a four columned work. My speedy bad translation while watching an HBO documentary:
And Mark remembered, from whom we will usefully set beside that which pertains to the transgression of the elders who held it necessary to wash hands when the Jews ate bread according to the place thus having.
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Re: Did Origen Use Ammonius's Diatessaron Gospel?

Post by Ben C. Smith »

I think the sense may be, "from whom we may usefully set alongside the things found [οὕτως ἔχοντα, 'thus holding' or 'thus being (present)'] in the passage [κατὰ τὸν τόπον, 'according to the passage']...."

By the way, you are writing as if the notion that Origen knew a fourfold synopsis of the gospels from Ammonius might be highly controversial or something. I view it, rather, as very intrinsically likely. Ammonius supposedly flourished in Alexandria; Eusebius describes his work as Matthew being set alongside the parallels from the other three gospels; and Origen flourished in Alexandria and is the first Christian author to have so extensively used parallels from all four gospels in his commentaries on scripture. It just looks to me like the best assumption is that Origen had and used Ammonius' work.
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Re: Did Origen Use Ammonius's Diatessaron Gospel?

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Thank you. On a side note, maybe I've been influenced by Origen, but doesn't Matthew sound more original than Mark in this section?
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Re: Did Origen Use Ammonius's Diatessaron Gospel?

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Secret Alias wrote: Sun May 26, 2019 9:41 pm Thank you. On a side note, maybe I've been influenced by Origen, but doesn't Matthew sound more original than Mark in this section?
The parts of Mark that are not paralleled in Matthew certainly at times sound like commentary on the parts that are paralleled in Matthew.
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Re: Did Origen Use Ammonius's Diatessaron Gospel?

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Thanks. And back to my thesis. When Origen speaks of "usefully setting beside" the thing in Mark to the thing previously cited in Matthew, this is exactly what would have been done in Ammonius. Mark would be "usefully set beside" Matthew. But other than that I can't see anything in Origen's language that specifically indicates that he and his audience all saw a page in a book where Mark was usefully set beside Matthew. It still sounds like he's suggesting this be done "in the mind's eye" of the reader. You don't see any indications of an actual text that I don't see?
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Re: Did Origen Use Ammonius's Diatessaron Gospel?

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Secret Alias wrote: Sun May 26, 2019 9:56 pm Thanks. And back to my thesis. When Origen speaks of "usefully setting beside" the thing in Mark to the thing previously cited in Matthew, this is exactly what would have been done in Ammonius. Mark would be "usefully set beside" Matthew. But other than that I can't see anything in Origen's language that specifically indicates that he and his audience all saw a page in a book where Mark was usefully set beside Matthew. It still sounds like he's suggesting this be done "in the mind's eye" of the reader. You don't see any indications of an actual text that I don't see?
No. Would we expect to see such indications, though? Even in this modern age, I cannot count the number of times I have presented information on this very forum that I gleaned either from the Synopsis Quattuor Evangeliorum or from my own synopses of the gospels laid out in columns, but without actually spelling out that I was looking at a synopsis; all that mattered in my presentation is that each of the texts said X or Y, and that the reader could check (in whatever way seems best to the individual).
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Re: Did Origen Use Ammonius's Diatessaron Gospel?

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What about Origen's frequent use of ἀναγράφω? Could it mean 'catalogue' or 'publicly set up' as in a manuscript? From Athenaeus:
According to Sotion of Alexandria in his On Timo’s Silloi (fr. 1 Wehrli), Alexis in The Instructor in Profligacy—I never encountered the play myself; despite reading over 800 so-called Middle Comedies and compiling extracts from them, I never came upon The Instructor in Profligacy, and I know of no one who thought it deserved to be catalogued; because neither Callimachus nor Aristophanes27 catalogued it, and neither did the cataloguers working in Pergamum

Ἄλεξις δ᾿ ἐν Ἀσωτοδιδασκάλῳ, φησὶ Σωτίων ὁ Ἀλεξανδρεὺς ἐν τοῖς Περὶ τῶν Τίμωνος Σίλλων· ἐγὼ γὰρ οὐκ ἀπήντησα τῷ δράματι· πλείονα τῆς μέσης καλουμένης κωμῳδίας ἀναγνοὺς δράματα τῶν ὀκτακοσίων καὶ τούτων ἐκλογὰς ποιησάμενος οὐ περιέτυχον eτῷ Ἀσωτοδιδασκάλῳ, | ἀλλ᾿ οὐδ᾿ ἀναγραφῆς ἀξιωθέν τινι σύνοιδα· οὔτε γὰρ Καλλίμαχος οὔτε Ἀριστοφάνης αὐτὸ ἀνέγραψαν, ἀλλ᾿ οὐδ᾿ οἱ τὰς ἐν Περγάμῳ ἀναγραφὰς ποιησάμενοι https://webcache.googleusercontent.com/ ... clnk&gl=us
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Re: Did Origen Use Ammonius's Diatessaron Gospel?

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I guess not.
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Re: Did Origen Use Ammonius's Diatessaron Gospel?

Post by Secret Alias »

Origen's use of ἀναγράφω. It always surfaces in discussion of variation within the four accounts.
Comm Matt 10.19 (Matthew wrote) Ἑξῆς ἔστιν ἰδεῖν τὸ οὐκ ἐποίησεν ἐκεῖ δυνάμεις πολλὰς διὰ τὴν ἀπιστίαν αὐτῶν. ∆ιὰ τούτων δὲ διδασκόμεθα ὅτι αἱ δυνάμεις ἐν τοῖς πιστεύουσιν ἐγίνοντο, ἐπεὶ «παντὶ τῷ ἔχοντι δοθήσεται καὶ περισσευθήσεται», ἐν ἀπίστοις δὲ οὐ μόνον οὐκ ἐνήργουν αἱ δυνάμεις, ἀλλ' ὡς ὁ Μᾶρκος ἀνέγραψεν (but as Mark recorded), οὐδὲ ἐδύναντο ἐνεργεῖν

10.20 διὰ τοῦτο νῦν καὶ τοῦτο ἀνέγραψεν ὁ Ματθαῖος, καὶ ὁ Μᾶρκος δὲ αὐτῷ παραπλησίως (therefore Matthew has now recorded it, and Mark almost like him) but Luke passed over in silence the greater part of the narrative as it is found in them.

11.5 ὀλίγον <δ'> ἐναλλάξας τὴν λέξιν ἀνέγραψε καὶ ὁ Μᾶρκος ποιήσας - see above But since Mark has made a slight change in the reading, and for Straightway He constrained the disciples to enter into the boat and to go before Him to the other side, has written, And straightway He constrained His disciples to enter into the boat and to go before Him unto the other side unto Bethsaida, Mark 6:45 we must attend to the word, He constrained, when first we have seen to the slight variation in Mark who indicates something more definite by the addition of the pronoun; for the same thing is not expressed by the words, straightway He constrained the disciples.

11.8 · ∆ιὰ τί οἱ μαθηταί σου παραβαίνουσι τὴν παράδοσιν τῶν πρεσβυτέρων καὶ τὰ ἑξῆς, εἴσεται ὅτι ἀναγκαίως ὁ Ματθαῖος οὐχ ἁπλῶς ἀνέγραψε προσεληλυθέναι τοὺς ἀπὸ Ἱεροσολύμων Φαρισαίους καὶ γραμματεῖς τῷ σωτῆρι πυνθανομένους αὐτοῦ τὰ ἐκκείμενα, ἀλλὰ πεποίηκε (will perceive that Matthew of necessity recorded not simply that Pharisees and scribes from Jerusalem came to the Saviour to inquire of Him the matters before us, but put it thus)

11.11 And, after this, wishing to refute completely from the words of the prophets all these traditions of the elders among the Jews, He brought before them a saying, from Isaiah, which in the exact words is as follows: And the Lord said, This people draws near to Me with their mouth, etc.; Isaiah 29:13 and, as we said before, Matthew has not written out the prophetical saying in the very words (Καὶ προείπομέν γε ὅτι οὐκ αὐταῖς λέξεσιν ἀνέγραψεν ὁ Ματθαῖος τὸ προφητικόν)

11.19 Κἀκεῖ μὲν κελεύει «τοὺς ὄχλους ἀνακλιθῆναι» οὐκ ἀναπεσεῖν «ἐπὶ τοῦ χόρτου»· καὶ γὰρ ὁ Λουκᾶς «κατακλίνατε αὐτοὺς» ἀνέγραψε καὶ ὁ Μᾶρκος (and Mark records) «ἐπέταξε» φησὶν «αὐτοῖς πάντας ἀνα κλῖναι», ἐνθάδε δὲ οὐ κελεύει ἀλλὰ παραγγέλλει τῷ ὄχλῳ ἀναπεσεῖν. Πάλιν ἐκεῖ μὲν<ταῖς> αὐταῖς λέξεσιν οἱ τρεῖς εὐαγγελισταί φασιν ὅτι ( Again, there, the three Evangelists say in the very same words that) «λαβὼν τοὺς πέντε ἄρτους καὶ τοὺς δύο ἰχθύας, ἀναβλέψας εἰς τὸν οὐρανὸν ηὐλόγησεν», ἐνθάδε δέ, ὡς ὁ Ματθαῖος καὶ Μᾶρκος ἀνέγραψαν (but here, as Matthew and Mark have written), εὐχαρισ τήσας ὁ Ἰησοῦς ἔκλασε. Κἀκεῖ μὲν «ἐπὶ τοῦ χόρτου» ἀνακλίνονται, ἐνθάδε δὲ ἐπὶ τὴν γῆν ἀναπίπτουσι. Ζητήσεις δὲ ἐν τοῖς κατὰ τοὺς τόπους τὸ τοῦ Ἰωάννου παρηλλαγμένον, ὃς ἐπ' ἐκείνης μὲν τῆς πράξεως ἀνέγραψεν ὅτι εἶπεν ὁ Ἰησοῦς (John who wrote in regard to that transaction that Jesus said)· «Ποιήσατε τοὺς ἀνθρώπους ἀναπεσεῖν» καὶ ὅτι «εὐχαριστήσας ἔδωκε τοῖς ἀνακειμένοις» ἀπὸ τῶν ἄρτων, ταύτης δὲ οὐδὲ τὴν ἀρχὴν ἐμνημόνευσε.

12.1 Now, a similar thing, as Luke has recorded (ὡς ὁ Λουκᾶς ἀνέγραψε), Luke 23:12 happened in the case of Herod and Pilate, who became friends with one another that they might kill Jesus; for, perhaps, their hostility with one another would have prevented Herod from asking that He should be put to death, in order to please the people, who said, Crucify Him, Crucify Him, Luke 23:21 and would have influenced Pilate, who was somewhat inclined against His condemnation, his hostility with Herod giving fresh impulse to the inclination which he previously cherished to release Jesus.

12.15 Accordingly Mark and Luke who have recorded that Peter answered and said, You are the Christ, but have not given the addition found in Matthew, have not recorded that he was declared blessed for what had been said (οὐκ ἀνέγραψαν τὸν ἐπὶ τῷ εἰρημένῳ μακαρισμὸν καὶ τὴν μετὰ τὸν μακα ρισμὸν εὐλογίαν λέγουσαν τὸ), nor the blessing which followed the declaration of blessedness, You are Peter, Matthew 16:18 etc.

12.37 But hear these things, if you can, at the same time giving heed spiritually, that it is not said simply, He was transfigured, but with a certain necessary addition, which Matthew and Mark have recorded ( ἣν ἀνέγραψε Ματθαῖος καὶ Μᾶρκος); for, according to both, He was transfigured before them.

14.16 After this it is written that there came unto Him the Pharisees tempting Him and saying, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? Matthew 19:3 Mark, also, has written to the like effect (τὸ ἰσοδυναμοῦν ἀνέγραψε καὶ ὁ Μᾶρκος).

15.6 Then, although the evangelists who have remembered the events in this passage have recorded that on the one hand (as Matthew says)
“Children were brought to Jesus,” or (as Mark says), “they were also bringing children to him” (Mk 10.13), or (as Luke) records (ἀνέγραψαν), “they were also bringing babes to him” (Lk 18.15), they have all at the same time omitted by whom they were brought, or the certain ones bringing [them], leaving us to inquire what has been omitted, so as to see whether it was simply a coincidence that this has been omitted by the Three (who could have recorded, “They were brought to him by parents,” or “from mothers,” or “Their mothers were bringing [M1269] babes or children”), or whether they did this with knowledge by thought and [K364] wisdom for a representation of this [reality]: that angels who approach Jesus and serve him observe the differences of children and babes with a more divine mind, and they know that it is necessary to bring certain ones to Jesus, in order that, after bringing them to him, they might have hands laid on them by him, and at what time

15.10 One must not deem there to be a quarrel, therefore, between [K375] “Do what i good” and “Why do you ask me concerning what is good? There is one who is good,” which is said to the one who inquires and says, “Teacher, what good thing shall I do?” On the one hand, therefore, Matthew has recorded (ἀνέγραψεν) “What good thing shall I do?” as though the Savior was being asked concerning a good work. Mark and Luke on the other hand have represented the Savior as having said, “Why do you call me good? None is good except one, God” (Mk 10.18; Lk 18.19) as though the term “good” applied to God may not be applied to any other thing.

15.31 Indeed, I am persuaded that Matthew, on the one hand, knew the mysteries according to this parable, as also the [mysteries] according to the [parable] of the sower, and of the tares that are sown with the grain. But, on the other hand, he did not judge it fitting to record an [explanation] concerning this parable in a way similar to the explanations for those [parables], not entrusting to letters the clarification of this parable in this instance, just as he recorded (ἀνέγραψεν) the explanation of all the others. But if Matthew fittingly passed over in silence the [K442] explanation concerning the parable, clearly even if someone might be able to understand it in part, perhaps something of the explanation that appears to him might fittingly be riddled, yet there is no way that all the things hidden could be clarified by him and entrusted to writing without the hazard that would come with the exposition of the mysteries.

16.2 One must compare, then, the things said here with the similar things recorded above,8 since there in reference to these words the Savior prophesied “Peter took him aside and began to rebuke him, saying, ‘Far be it from you, Lord. This will never happen to you!’” (Matt 16.22), but here the disciples are not recorded (ἀνεγράφησαν) as having said or done anything in reference to the things [they] were told pertaining to the quite gloomy things yet to happen

16.4. Then the mother of the sons of Zebedee came to him with her sons, etc., up to, When the ten heard [this], they became angry [K472] at the two brothers. (20.20-24). Mark has recorded (ἀνέγραψε) something similar to this passage: “And James and John, the sons of Zebedee, came to him and said to him,” etc., up to, “they began to be angry at James and John” (Mk 10.35-41).

For just as in the case of a worldly kingdom those who are seated with the king who is seated in the royal vestment seem to be in an eminent position and they manage the matters of the royalty, so also the mother of the sons of Zebedee (or “James and John” as Mark recorded ἢ ὡς ὁ Μᾶρκος ἀνέγραψεν Ἰάκωβος καὶ Ἰωάννης)) who appears here seems (according to the literal sense) to request from the Savior that one [son] be seated on his right when he came into the kingdom, and the other on his left. Indeed, on the one hand,

and “hereafter you will see the Son of man seated on the right of the power” (Matt 26.64). Mark has recorded (ἀνέγραψεν) something of equivalent force to this, “and you will see the Son of man seated on the right of the power and coming with the clouds of heaven” (Mk 14.62). Luke also says something similar, “For from now the Son of man will be seated on the right of the power of God” (Lk 22.69).

16.5 It seems to me that he also wanted to compare the mother of the sons of Zebedee and these things, for indeed he leaves to them for the accomplishing of those things attainable by men that are not a matter of chance, when, after you do not know what you ask, he answered and said, are you able to drink the cup which I am about to drink? (or as Mark recorded ἢ ὡς ὁ Μᾶρκος ἀνέγραψε: “Are you able to drink the cup I will drink, or to be baptized with the baptism with which I will be baptized?” [Mk 10.38-39])

16.8 This is even more the case for those things the Savior spoke [in response] to the demand of the mother of John and James or of the sons of Zebedee themselves who, after hearing (it says) the Ten became angry concerning the two brothers as though deeming themselves to be worthy of greater honor than the rest. One might observe also that Judas was among those who got angry (and Mark also recorded this καὶ ἀνέγραψε τοῦτο καὶ ὁ Μᾶρκος).

But Jesus called to them and said: “You know that the rulers of the nations lord it over them, etc.27 up to, and to give his soul a ransom on behalf of many” (20.25-28). Mark has also recorded (καὶ ὁ Μᾶρκος ἀνέγραψεν) things that are of equivalent force to this. We have observed that, just as with many other passages Matthew and Mark maintain the [same] order of the things recorded, the situation is the same here.

Mark has also preserved all these things in order, from “They were ascending in the way to Jerusalem,” up to, “Immediately he will send it back here again” (Mk 10.32- 11.3). Should you set the gospels alongside one another in terms of these passages and compare them you would find what we have said [is the case]. Luke also, however, has in part recorded something similar, placing before them (καὶ ὁ Λουκᾶς μέντοι ἐκ μέρους τὸ ὅμοιον ἀνέγραψε προτάξας αὐτῶν τὸ) “And strife occurred among them, as to which of them <might b>e the greatest” (Lk 22.24).

16.12 After this, Mark says that “he cast off [his] garment, jumped up, and came to Jesus” (Mk 10.50). So then, does [Mark] have nothing in mind when he recorded (ἀνέγραψε) concerning his casting off his garment, having jumped up to come to Jesus? Indeed would we dare to say that these things have been included in the Gospel in vain? For myself, therefore, I do not believe that there is one iota or a single stroke (cf. Matt 5.18) that is empty in the divine [K514] lessons, but I think that the one who would be successful in interpreting them needs a robust faculty of reason (pollou logou) on account of the interpretive difficulty of the matters involved.

16.13 First, you should observe that both Matthew and Mark have recorded (ἀνέγραψαν) that this event with the blind men or the blind man happened when Jesus was going out from Jericho with the disciples. Luke, however, says, “And it happened when he drew near to Jericho” (Lk 18.35). Thus, according to Luke, he completed the [healing] ministry (oikonomia) with respect to the blind man when he was coming to
Jericho and was near it. Now, someone might say that, in terms of the mystical word, Luke’s version is first, Mark’s is second, [K516] and
Matthew’s is third ( κατὰ τὸν μυστικὸν λόγον ὅτι πρῶτόν ἐστι τὸ τοῦ Λουκᾶ, δεύτερον δὲ τὸ τοῦ Μάρκου [K516] καὶ τρίτον τὸ τοῦ Ματθαίου). For it is necessary first to draw near to Jericho, then to come into it, and <after these things> to go out from it. Luke recorded (ἀνέγραψε), then, that “it happened when he drew near to Jericho,” and Mark that “he also came to Jericho, and when he was coming out of there” (Mk 10.46), but Matthew recorded neither that he drew near to Jericho nor that he came to Jericho, but only that when they were going out from Jericho, a large crowd followed him (Matt 20.29). It is possible, therefore, that [Jesus] had drawn near to Jericho according to Luke, and according to Mark he came to Jericho, but according to Matthew he came out from it.
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
― Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra, Don Quixote
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Re: Did Origen Use Ammonius's Diatessaron Gospel?

Post by Secret Alias »

I think this about as close as I have found regarding a confirmation that Origen was using a four column book with Matthew as the first colum, Mark as the second column, Luke as the third:
16.13 First, you should observe that both Matthew and Mark have recorded (ἀνέγραψαν) that this event with the blind men or the blind man happened when Jesus was going out from Jericho with the disciples. Luke, however, says, “And it happened when he drew near to Jericho” (Lk 18.35). Thus, according to Luke, he completed the [healing] ministry (oikonomia) with respect to the blind man when he was coming to
Jericho and was near it. Now, someone might say that, in terms of the mystical word, Luke’s version is first, Mark’s is second, [K516] and
Matthew’s is third ( κατὰ τὸν μυστικὸν λόγον ὅτι πρῶτόν ἐστι τὸ τοῦ Λουκᾶ, δεύτερον δὲ τὸ τοῦ Μάρκου [K516] καὶ τρίτον τὸ τοῦ Ματθαίου)
. For it is necessary first to draw near to Jericho, then to come into it, and <after these things> to go out from it. Luke recorded (ἀνέγραψε), then, that “it happened when he drew near to Jericho,” and Mark that “he also came to Jericho, and when he was coming out of there” (Mk 10.46), but Matthew recorded neither that he drew near to Jericho nor that he came to Jericho, but only that when they were going out from Jericho, a large crowd followed him (Matt 20.29). It is possible, therefore, that [Jesus] had drawn near to Jericho according to Luke, and according to Mark he came to Jericho, but according to Matthew he came out from it.
“Finally, from so little sleeping and so much reading, his brain dried up and he went completely out of his mind.”
― Miguel de Cervantes Saavedra, Don Quixote
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