Why are there unattributed quotations in the books?

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Seidensticker
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Why are there unattributed quotations in the books?

Post by Seidensticker »

I was browsing "Excerpts of Theodotus" http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/t ... dotus.html. I'm wondering what explains all the quotations. Some are given attributions, but other are just quotes for no obvious reason.

For example:
"Shine forth as the sun," or in the sun

Why is "Shine forth as the sun" in quotes? All I can think of is that this fragment was plausibly gotten from the canonical New Testament (in this case, Matthew 13:43 "Then the righteous will shine like the sun").

Thanks for any help.
Seidensticker
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Re: Why are there unattributed quotations in the books?

Post by Seidensticker »

Maybe there's an introduction to this collection of books that I've missed that explains things like this?

I'm new to this site, so please point me to it if so. Thanks.
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MrMacSon
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Re: Why are there unattributed quotations in the books?

Post by MrMacSon »

Seidensticker wrote: Thu Jun 06, 2019 9:49 am
I was browsing "Excerpts of Theodotus" http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/t ... dotus.html. I'm wondering what explains all the quotations. Some are given attributions, but other are just quotes for no obvious reason.

For example:
"Shine forth as the sun," or in the sun

Why is "Shine forth as the sun" in quotes? All I can think of is that this fragment was plausibly gotten from the canonical New Testament (in this case, Matthew 13:43 "Then the righteous will shine like the sun").

Thanks for any help.
I presume the quotation marks / inverted commas are a modern attribution / modern grammar.

I don't know anything about the Excerpts [Epitomai] of/from Theodotus, but a preliminary internet search gives, -

1. Estimated Range of Dating: 150-180 A.D.


. [underlining, single quotation marks and italics by me, MrMacSon]
.
2. "... the translator...separat[ed] this collection, absolutely, from the works of Clement of Alexandria, to which it has been made an appendix. The reference to "our Pantaenus" gives the only colour for such a collocation with so great a name. It is the work of a Montanist, perhaps, who may have had some relations with the Alexandrian school; but it is hard to say precisely who of three or four named Theodotus (all heretics), may have made the compilation, more especially because disjointed and contradictory fragments seem mixed up in it as it is commonly edited1. Dupin (perhaps too readily copying Valesius) appears to think Clement may have been the compiler, but that, like the Hypotyposes, the work was the product of days when he was 'imperfectly educated in Christian truth'. It seems to me more reasonable to conclude that these excerpts, and what goes by the name of 'Fragments from the Hypotyposes', are alike corrupt or forged documents2, for which Clement's name has been borrowed, to give them some credit; and I can desire no better authority for this opinion than that of Jeremiah Jones, with the arguments to be found in his learned work on the Canon.

"The wretched performance, therefore, is valuable chiefly as illustrating certain heresies of the second century2; but, incidentally, it is of considerable importance as 'confirming the orthodox writers in those books and doctrines to which it bears witness in coincidence with them'." 2

https://www.biblestudytools.com/history ... tures.html


.
3. Theodotus the Gnostic

Valentinian. The works of Clement of Alexandria include “Excerpts [Epitomai] from Theodotus and the teachings of the so-called eastern school in the time of Valentinian”; it is hard to determine which sections are ascribed to Theodotus himself. Alongside the sections containing Clement’s own position, other material is generally ascribed to the Valentinians (Valentinianism). A parallel version of the Valentinian myth recorded by Irenaeus of Lyon (Haer. I 1–8) does not mention its source (Clement Excerpta Theodoti 43.2–65). The passages ascribed to Theodo…

https://referenceworks.brillonline.com/ ... s.rows=100

1 I'm not sure whether that is affirming it is commonly edited, or affirming that "disjointed and contradictory fragments seem mixed up in it as it [was] commonly edited", ie., that such disjointed and contradictory fragments were [often] the result of common editing.

2 Following Irenaeus' Adversus Haeresies it became common and is still common to write off any non-canonical texts as heresies and as attempts to contaminate the Christian scriptures. In reality, texts such like this probably truly reflect the diversity of early Christianity.
Seidensticker
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Re: Why are there unattributed quotations in the books?

Post by Seidensticker »

Helpful, thanks.

I'm mostly puzzled by the bits that are quoted. For example, at http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0802.htm , it looks like this:
"Shine forth as the sun," Matthew 13:43 or in the sun

I'm guessing that "Shine forth as the sun" is thought to be an homage or repeat of the same bit in Matt. 13:43. But if that's the case, I'd like to see how these parallels are decided.
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Ben C. Smith
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Re: Why are there unattributed quotations in the books?

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Seidensticker wrote: Thu Jun 06, 2019 9:49 am I was browsing "Excerpts of Theodotus" http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/t ... dotus.html. I'm wondering what explains all the quotations. Some are given attributions, but other are just quotes for no obvious reason.

For example:
"Shine forth as the sun," or in the sun

Why is "Shine forth as the sun" in quotes? All I can think of is that this fragment was plausibly gotten from the canonical New Testament (in this case, Matthew 13:43 "Then the righteous will shine like the sun").

Thanks for any help.
That is exactly whence that quotation come: Matthew 13.43. The formatting on that website sometimes removes the footnotes. You can find the original text, with footnotes, here: https://books.google.com/books?id=518Bd ... 22&f=false.
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Seidensticker
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Re: Why are there unattributed quotations in the books?

Post by Seidensticker »

Thanks! But it's just supposition that Theodotus got "Shine forth as the sun" from Matt 13:43, isn't it? Sure, it's possible, but it's just one scholar's best guess, right?

If another scholar took Theodotus and tried to find NT precedents, they'd come up with a similar (perhaps) but different set of connections, right?

This quoting bits to mean a reference to a NT verse is new to me, so I apologize for the dumb questions. Thanks for your patience.
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Re: Why are there unattributed quotations in the books?

Post by Peter Kirby »

Seidensticker wrote: Sat Jun 08, 2019 9:34 pm If another scholar took Theodotus and tried to find NT precedents, they'd come up with a similar (perhaps) but different set of connections, right?
Yes. This is one of the things that depend a bit on the translator.
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Ben C. Smith
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Re: Why are there unattributed quotations in the books?

Post by Ben C. Smith »

Seidensticker wrote: Sat Jun 08, 2019 9:34 pm Thanks! But it's just supposition that Theodotus got "Shine forth as the sun" from Matt 13:43, isn't it? Sure, it's possible, but it's just one scholar's best guess, right?
On the one hand, it is a supposition, since these ancient texts do not have footnotes like our modern editions do. On the other, if it is "just one scholar's best guess," then it is a guess that more than one scholar agrees with.

Here is the Greek, both of the excerpt from Theodotus and of the verse in Matthew:

Eclogae Propheticae / Excerpta ex Theodoto 56 (TLG): 56 .... «λάμψαντες ὡς ὁ ἥλιος» ἢ ἐν ἡλίῳ, ἐπεὶ ἀρχοντικὸς ἄγγελος ἐν ἡλίῳ. ....

Matthew 13.43a: 43a τότε οἱ δίκαιοι ἐκλάμψουσιν ὡς ὁ ἥλιος....

I am guessing that the TLG version comes from Otto Stählin's version; hence the quotation marks signifying a quotation, which Stählin identifies as a reference to Matthew 13.43 in the footnote.
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MrMacSon
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Re: Why are there unattributed quotations in the books?

Post by MrMacSon »

Seidensticker wrote: Sat Jun 08, 2019 3:05 pm Helpful, thanks.

I'm mostly puzzled by the bits that are quoted. For example, at http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0802.htm , it looks like this:

"Shine forth as the sun," Matthew 13:43 or in the sun

I'm guessing that "Shine forth as the sun" is thought to be an homage or repeat of the same bit in Matt. 13:43. But if that's the case, I'd like to see how these parallels are decided.
Seidensticker wrote: Sat Jun 08, 2019 9:34 pm Thanks! But it's just supposition that Theodotus got "Shine forth as the sun" from Matt 13:43, isn't it? Sure, it's possible, but it's just one scholar's best guess, right?

If another scholar took Theodotus and tried to find NT precedents, they'd come up with a similar (perhaps) but different set of connections, right?

This quoting bits to mean a reference to a NT verse is new to me, so I apologize for the dumb questions. Thanks for your patience.
I agree it's just supposition that Theodotus got "Shine forth as the sun" from Matt 13:43.

There are six other references to Matthew wrt passages from the NT book of Matthew in the new advent page for this document.

I think far too often that such passages - especially in 2nd century texts - are said to be derived from canonical texts without justification for doing so and without acknowledgement such mentions could be incidental or coincidental, or could even have found their way into canonical books from documents such as this, especially given the recent propositions that the synoptic gospels were [mostly] written in the mid to late 2nd century.

Nowhere in Excerpts of Theodotus is there mention of Jesus. There are two mentions of Christ. This might well support the proposition the author/s of this document did not know the canonical gospels.

There are six 'the Saviour's and one 'our Saviour'. The first is "the Saviour who saves is the Son of God. He is then the head."

There are five mentions of Holy Spirit; two as "the Father, and Son, and Holy Spirit", with one being "knowledge of the Father, and Son, and Holy Spirit".

There is one reference to John the Baptist

  • 25. John says: "I indeed baptize you with water, but there cometh after me He that baptizeth with the Spirit and fire."

There are four references to Peter - three with reference to the Revelation (one) or the Apocalypse (two) - but it's not clear whether they're from the canonical text (The new advent page for this document doesn't say where they're from), -

  • 41. Scripture says that infants which are exposed are delivered to a guardian angel, and that by him they are trained and reared. "And they shall be," it says, "as the faithtful in this world of a hundred years of age." Wherefore also Peter, in the Revelation, says: "And a flash of fire, leaping from those infants, and striking the eyes of the women." For the just shines: forth as a spark in a reed, and will judge the nations.
  • 48. For instance, Peter says in the Apocalypse, that abortive infants shall share the better fate; that these are committed to a guardian angel, so that, on receiving knowledge, they may obtain the better abode, having had the same experiences which they would have had had they been in the body. But the others shall obtain salvation merely, as being injured and pitied, and remain without punishment, receiving this reward.
  • 49. The milk of women, flowing from the breasts and thickening, says Peter in the Apocalypse, will produce minute beasts, that prey on flesh, and running back into them will consume them: teaching that punishments arise for sins. He says that they are produced from sins; as it was for their sins that the people were sold. And for their want of faith in Christ, as the apostle says, they were bitten by serpents.
  • 58. "The law of God is perfect, converting souls." The Saviour Himself is called Law and Word, as Peter in "the Preaching," and the prophet: "Out of Zion shall go forth the Law, and the Word of the Lord from Jerusalem."

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Re: Why are there unattributed quotations in the books?

Post by andrewcriddle »

Seidensticker wrote: Thu Jun 06, 2019 9:49 am I was browsing "Excerpts of Theodotus" http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/t ... dotus.html. I'm wondering what explains all the quotations. Some are given attributions, but other are just quotes for no obvious reason.

For example:
"Shine forth as the sun," or in the sun

Why is "Shine forth as the sun" in quotes? All I can think of is that this fragment was plausibly gotten from the canonical New Testament (in this case, Matthew 13:43 "Then the righteous will shine like the sun").

Thanks for any help.
FWIW http://www.earlychristianwritings.com/t ... dotus.html should be referred to as Selections from the prophetic scriptures or some similar title. The real Excerpts of Theodotus is here.

Andrew Criddle
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